Can the state of Texas really be it's own country?
549997
no, the u.s. would not allow them or any other state to secede(remember the civil war?). plus it would be in the state's best interests not to. several years ago some separatist wackos found a loophole that claimed texas was still a republic, but a judge ruled against them. end of story.
825944
I wasn't aware that the Texans "stole THEIR land illegally".  I thought they fought a war and won and were later admitted to the Union.  Based on your line of reasoning, we stole the 13 colonies from Britain because we fought a war with them and beat them as well.
152843
Don't mess with Texas.
801283
I'm having a hard time following the premise of your question.\n\nYou state..."It was Mexico that made the deal to sell off the southern states."\n\nThis is historically unfounded. The American states of the Deep South (Mississippi, Alabama, etc.) were all a part of the original territories of the United States, formed before Mexico achieved independence.\n\nOther Southern states like Louisianna and Arkansas, etc, were carved from the Louisianna Purchase which was negotiated between the US and France.\n\nThe state of Texas achieved independence as a result of war with Mexico. (Again, Mexico "sold" nothing). And the states of the American Southwest were taken from Mexico during the Mexican-American War. (Mexico didn't "sell" them).\n\nThe only portion "sold" to the US was a tiny sliver of land in southern Arizona, known as the Gadsden Purchase. \n\nThese things being the case -- can you clarify you point, please?
186227
1700?  It was still part of Mexico\n\n1900?  It was part if the U.S.\n\nGoogle Texas...
317353
Technically, Spain at time owned the area from Texas all the way to California and all the way up north to Oregon. When the Mexicans won their independence from Spain in 1823, I believe, they inherited what was then New Spain or as its known, "Nuevo Espana". And yes, it did include Colorado. But in the 1840s, America wanted to expand all the way westward and Americans were moving to modern-day Texas. The Americans wanted Texas to become American. Mexico actually encouraged American immigration to the region because of two major reasons. The first region was the Texas territory of what was then Mexico was underpopulated with a few missionary outposts. Second of all, the citizens they had in the area the more government revenue they could have gotten. The allure of the Texas territory was the gold rush. However, the Mexicans had one caveat about American immigration to the region. The Mexicans outlawed slavery. The Americans felt that since they were paying taxes to the Mexican governnment that the Mexican government should just mind their business. (Sounds familiar)\n   Fast foward, Mexico sent troops to the Texas area to keep the Americans in line. The Americans fought against the Mexicans and defeated Mexico at the battle at the Alamo. Mexico had no choice but to give Texas its independence. It is important to note that Texas was an independent nation. Later the Americans bought about 1 million acres from Mexico called the Gadsen Purchase. It is also important to note that Mexico's hold over the far-flung reaches of their possessions north of the Rio Grande was weak at best. \n But the United States won the New Spain territory or after Mexican independence, New Mexico via the Mexican-American war. Technically to say that America belonged them isn't true as Spain only colonized Mexico in 1509. Simple subtraction find the western US belonged to Mexico(1848-1823) only 25 years. It belonged to Spain for (1823-1509) 314 years.
442486
Umm...no.  First of all, the United States has never stolen any land from Mexico.  We won a few wars.  We made the peace agreements.  Mexico legally signed their lands over to us.  And this all occurred close to 150 years ago.\n\nThe notion that they're going to take Texas and other Southwestern states "back" is ridiculous.  People are coming over the border to find work as there is very little in Mexico.\n\nAnd, even for a minute, the Mexicans are trying to take land "back" from the US, we would declare war on them before any of that would happen.  And then they would lose and they'd finally stop complaining.\n\nI don't think anyone should worry about that though, as the Mexican government can't seem to do anything correctly, anyway.
982960
Of course it was.  I am from texas and it was most open form of illegal immigration in history.  But the historians will never say so, they will tell you about some bull that the mexicans where not really using it so it was free to claim.  Bull, and they know it, and no I am not mexican.  I am just keeping it real.  And no they had no right to ask, basically they didn't and thats when you get the alamo.  The people of america at that time didn't take no for an answer so they just took what they wanted by force.  I would of love it because you know what at the time that mexico had texas and california THERE WAS NO SUCH THING AS SLAVERY.  So I guess you can blame america for the creation and the ending of slavery.
99116
I wouldn't go to Texas asking a question like that...\n"When you're in Texas look behind you, 'cause that's where the Ranger's gonna be!"
505537
Gotta be Texas.  A VERY large portion of it is flat, and most of it is near sea level.
498001
I agree with you.  I think there should be a fence around the entire state of texas.  Call the governor of Oklahoma and let him know your concerns.  I'm sure he feels the same way.
546632
What history book did you read?  Texas won their independence from Mexico and then asked the United States to annex them.
223103
It depends on the piece of land.  If Disney bought an island and wanted to apply for statehood, then no.  If Puerto Rico wanted to apply, then yes.  I guess the difference is is it just some person (or group of person) trying to be a wiseguy or is it really a group of people that want to be part of the United States.
107068
If it was it was stolen by Texans.  Texas won it's independence in 1836 and was the Texas Republic until 1845 when it joined the Union.  The Mexican-American War was not until after that.  Lincoln's single term in the U.S. Congress was from 1847-1849.  If it can be said that we stole any lands from Mexico as a result of the settlement of a war, could it not be said that Mexico had itself stolen these lands from Spain?  Then of course we all know who had them before that and had it stole from them as well.  Are we now trying to rewrite history books to make them politically correct without stepping on anyone's toes?
379643
thank you to post above,  correct i have this problem in my state\n\n\nto nickhardy we didnt steal it from you we bought it Why not sue Spain or Portugal for your stolen land? It is no more ridiculous to demand it from them than it is to demand it from the United States. We bought it from your conquerors, fought for it with a brand new Mexico, and won. Too bad for you, that means... You're Mexican! and we aren't. End of story. That is who you are\nLa Raza's stupid...they don't even know the history that they're using to complain about. They complain about Texas being "stolen" from them, well, BULL!
903534
They do in the state of Texas.
7624
No.  You own the property, the benefits and the lost is yours.  If you found oil on your land, are you going to share it with the State of Texas?