what is the normal INR number?  is it 1, 2, 3, or 4.  or zero.  you have a 1/4 chance?
79317
A normal INR is 1...now every test has a certain error in it, so 1.1 and 1 usually mean the same\n\nIf you are on coumadin, then your INR increases...\n\ntarget INR depends on the medical condition for which your are anticoagulated for. Atrial fibrilation is usually treated with a lower INR than a metal valve
342259
6! or 720 arrangements.\n\n2 * 4! or 48 with vowels at the ends, so it's a 1/15 chance.\n\nEdit: Yeah, I messed up.  Forgot the *2.
783748
Between 1/3 and 2/3 chance\nChance of him on his first step 1/3.\nChance if he first steps back,=  2/27 -  2/3 x 1/3 x 1/3 (ie he has to take 1 step back, then two forward to fall off cliff).\nChance if first two steps back then three \nsteps forward =  4/243\n\nSo its1/3+2/27+4/243 etc etc\n\nThe other options just keep adding up. \n\nThe increments get smaller, but they keep adding on to the probability.
248227
50% or .5 or 1/2\nThere are two possibilities when you flip the coin, and there's only one way it will be tails.\nTherefore, the probability is 1/2.
328978
since you listed this question under Diabetes, your lucky numbers are between 80-140.
636996
About 3 or 4. How bout u?
686256
depends... is the IRR negative?
324794
its easy. figure out in this way there are 3 digits and since its an odd number the one's place or the last digit can be 1,3,7,9(5 is excluded).the no. of chances are 4. for the second digit the digits can be 0 to 9 leaving 5 so no. of chances are 9. for the first digit 0 and 5 are not possible and the no. of chances are 8.\n\nmultiply the no. of chances for every digit it ll give u the answer i.e 8*9*4 = 288. so u have 288 different numbers.
466671
Flipping a coin 4 times means that there can be 16 different posibilites of Heads and Tails occuring (2^4 = 16).\n\nThus by dividing 1 (max. probability) by 16 we get .0625. So each combonation has a probability of 6.25%. Now there is only one possibilty (TTTT) where there are no heads thus the possibility of no heads is simply .0625 or 6.25%\nWhere as one head has the following possibilites:\n\nTTTH\nTTHT\nTHTT\nHTTT\n\nThus multiplying .0625 by 4 we get .25 which is possibilty of only 1 head occuring in four flips.\n\nSo in conlusion:\n\nFor four flips of a coin:\n\nProbability of only one head occuring = .25 or 25%\nProbability of no head occuring       = .0625 or 6.25%
1092672
Its 1:220\n\n(4/52)(3/51) = 1/221 which is the probability\nThus the odds are 1/220 or 1:220
853291
4 is the answer. Here's how:\n4 appears after a break of two numbers, so the number that follows 40 must be 4
1179837
a) Try counting the possibilities.\n     There is only one way to roll a 12...(6, 6)\n     and there are 36 different possible rolls.\n     so the chances are 1/36\n\nb) There are 2 possibilities for this one (3, 6) and (6, 3)\n     so it's 2/36 or 1/18\n\nThe difference between the book the you is notation.\n1:35 means that for every one success there are 35 failures.\n1/36 means that there is one success for every 36 tries.
520096
a) That means the number has to start with 5\nso you only need to choose the second and third digits.\nThere are 4 choices for the second and 3 choices for the third\n4*3 = 12\nb) The first digit must be 1 or 2\n2 choices for the first 1\n4 choices for the second \n3 choices for the third\n2*4*3 = 24\nEDIT: I read the part b incorrectly. This is the answer if no repetitions are allowed.\nIf repetitions are allowed, then you still have 5 choices for the second and third digits.\n2*5*5 = 50
714109
When there are 80 numbers with equal chance the probability is 1 / 80 for each number.\nThe chance of 20 out of 40 numbers is 1 out of \n40 x 39 x 38 x... x 22 x 21 = 40! / 20! = 3 x 10^29\nSince you have all the 80 numbers, the chance is 4 x 10^27.\nThe very, very, very most probability is that you waist your money again\n\nTh
733920
a) There are 16 combinations and 4 of them include exactly 3 heads (HHHT, HHTH, HTHH, THHH).  So the probability is 4/16 or 1/4.\n\nb) This question results in the same probability (4/16 = 1/4), except it asks for it as 'odds' which is the probability of success divided by the probability of failure.  That is 1 to 3 odds.\n\nc) The odds against heads are just the reverse.  Probability of failure divided by probability of success.  That is 3 to 1 odds against.
297211
as of right now, I would say no. they have 1 2 and 3 listed but no 4.
843943
4, 0, -2, -2, 0\n\nFigure it out! Don't be lazy!