Is it possible for an iframe to redirect the parent page?
Redirect parent window from an iframe action
How do I find playtesters? Obviously the first tester group would be your own group. But beyond that? It would seem to make sense to have at least more than one group test out your game, as different groups want different things and play differently. Fresh eyes find different bugs, etc. etc.  Are there resources out there to help aspiring game designers without a lot of contacts find people willing and eager to test out their game?  Or is this in essence a "" issue?  To clarify my own situation:  I have the mechanics finished. The setting is still under development, but in accordance with the motto "fail faster" I want to go ahead and test the mechanics (in a different setting for now) to see if they work and are fun or if I need to go back to the drawing board. I have a sort-of group, but I don't know them very well and they don't meet often, and so I'm not excited about the prospect of presenting the mechanics to them right now (as I'm sure there are a dozen issues I've overlooked). Also, I'd like to test the game (including the setting, later) on more than one group, as mentioned above. I've put out some feelers among my current friends and acquaintances, but nobody's really been excited about playtesting or even really giving in-depth feedback, and I don't want to be that person who's always shoving their project in your face. I'm willing to run something online as well. I'm also interested in having others run a game without me present, and giving me their feedback.  Also, I'm looking for something of a guide-type answer that might help someone besides just me. Is "do something by date X" inclusive? There are a few examples of pairs of words ending with -ee/-er like employee and employer or advisee and adviser. What I was curious about is if there was any rule that would describe the relationship of the objects in a pair like this and situations when it's appropriate to create a counterpart for a given word.   I'll give you an example. It's relatively common in the computer programming world to see the word dragee, which describes an object that is being dragged with a mouse. I understand that this is a relatively new word and could not be found in any dictionary (I've tried). Is that acceptable to make up words like this one or is it just bad English? Lost passport with Schengen visa My opponent casts , which resolves, then he attacks with his creatures.  In my hand, I have a creature card with Flash. If I summon this creature before the declare blockers step, will it be affected by Predatory Rampage's blocking requirement? probability that there is at least one defective part The Feeds bot’s translate command is no longer working for moderators What to look for in the datasheet when choosing a MOSFET? Consider these two ways of coining a name: 1) Bolzano's theorem, Rolle's theorem 2) the Poincare conjecture, the Kantorovich theorem. What is the difference between these ways, why do people choose one over the other?  My guess is that the main difference is when you put 's at the end of a name, you strictly imply that the theorem/conjecture was written by this very person (Bolzano wrote Bolzano's theorem). But when it is "the [Name] theorem/conjecture," it doesn't mean that the person which name is used actually created this thing, maybe he just inspired it (Poincare might have only inspired the Poincare conjecture but did not propose it).  Sometimes there is only one way: ; you can not call it hairy ball's theorem. Assume the standard situation, that is, let $X_1, \ldots , X_n$ be independent and identically distributed with $X_k ∼ P_\theta(x; \theta)$ , where $P_\theta(x; \theta) = 2x/\theta^2$  if $0\le x \le\theta$ and $0$ otherwise. It is required to estimate $\theta$. Show that the maximum likelihood estimator for $\theta$ is $\hat{\theta} = \max{[X_1, \ldots , X_n]}$ and then show that the cumulative distribution function of $\hat{\theta}$ is $F_\theta(z) = z^{2n}/\theta^{2n}$. Here's what i did so far: Maximum Likehood estimator: $L_x(θ) = \prod_{i = 1}^{n} P_θ(x_k)$ Here we have $P_θ(x_1,...,x_n;θ) = P_θ(x_1,θ).P_θ(x_2,θ)...P_θ(x_n,θ)$ Likehood = $L_{x,θ}(θ) =P_θ(x_1,θ).P_θ(x_2,θ)...P_θ(x_n,θ)= 2x_1/θ^2. 2x_2/θ^2.. 2x_n/θ^2 = [2^n.\prod_{i = 1}^{n}x_i]/θ^{2n}$ Log-likehood: $\sum_{i = 1}^{n}log(P_θ(x_1,...x_n;θ))= \sum_{i = 1}^{n}log(2x_i/θ^2)$ Is this correct so far? Im still not sure how to get to $\hat{θ} = max{[X_1, . . . , X_n]}$ As for the the cumulative distribution part to show $F_θ(z) = z^{2n}/θ^{2n}$: $F(z) = P(max({x_k})&lt;z) = P(x_1&lt;z).P(x_2&lt;z)..P(x_n&lt;z) = 2x_1/θ^2.2x_2/θ^2...2x_n/θ^n = 2^n.\prod_{i = 1}^{n}x_i/θ^2n$ Not sure if this is correct. Would really appreciate some help. Edit: From the answers below, we can deduce the the estimator is biased. What estimator would be unbiased? How can i find it? How can one differentiate between Dr. (PhD) and Dr. (MD or DO)? When I tried to connect my Ubuntu 13.10 to my VM Centos 6.5 using ssh appear the message "Connection refused" or "No route to host" even than I change the port, noting change.    I need to use SSH, VPN and Samba, but this IP in my VM Centos do not work.  How Can I resolve this problem? "spent a lot of time to shop" vs. "spent a lot of time shopping" She spends a lot of time to shop. She spends a lot of time shopping.   Are both of these sentences grammatically correct and do they have the same meaning? Can a ring without a unit element have a subring with a unit element? Unfortunately, I need to do this.  I'm using ELMAH for my error log.  Before I route to my error.aspx view, I have to grab the default ELMAH error log so I can log the exception.  You used to be able to use   Elmah.ErrorLog.Default   However, this is now marked as obsolete.  The compiler directs me to use the method  Elmah.ErrorLog.GetDefault(HttpContext context)   MVC's context is of type HttpContextBase, which enables us to mock it (YAY!).  How can we deal with MVC-unaware libraries that require the old style HttpContext? Connect Error (2054) - mysql_old_password issue still not solved I am familiar with the set-theoretical definition of functions.   A function $f : A \rightarrow B$ from a set $A$ to a set $B$ is a subset $f \subseteq A \times B$ of the Cartesian product $A \times B$ such that the following conditions hold:   $\forall a \in A : \exists b \in B : (a,b) \in f$ $\forall a \in A : \forall b, b' \in B : (a,b), (a,b') \in f \rightarrow b=b'$   Is there a purely set-theoretical definition of the function evaluation $f(a)$ for every $a \in A$? I get as far as defining  $f(a) = \{ b \in B : (a,b) \in f \}$ but that defines rather the set of values of a multi-valued function. I can write  VAR=$VAR1 VAR=${VAR1} VAR="$VAR1" VAR="${VAR1}"   the end result to me all seems about the same. Why should I write one or the other? are any of these not portable/POSIX? Can somebody give me an example of a graph on eight vertices that has a pair of pseudosimilar vertices? Or, is it not possible? If it is not possible, please do not give me a proof, as I would like to figure out how to prove it myself.     Definition: vertices $u$ and $v$ in a graph $X$ are similar if there is an automorphism of $X$ that maps $u$ to $v$. If $u$ and $v$ are similar, then the vertex-deleted subgraphs $X-u$ and $X-v$ are isomorphic. If $X-u$ and $X-v$ are isomorphic but $u$ and $v$ are not similar, we say that they are pseudosimilar. Series as an integral (sophomore's dream) I need help with this exercise.  I need to prove $$\int_{0}^{1}x^{-x}\ dx=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}n^{-n}$$  I think I should use some convergence theorem, but I'm stuck.  Thanks a lot!