Is there any reason to set an object to null in the finally block?
Setting Objects to Null/Nothing after use in .NET
How does similar_text work? Freestyle with multiple objects I have several objects that intersect each other:   I would like to draw lines on the silhouette and key details with Freestyle, however Blender does detect intersections between objects and gives a very strange result:   What I'm trying to make is something like this:   Note: This is just an example, what I'm trying to do has about 10 highly detailed objects which intersect each other, so manually combining them is not possible.  Is it possible to make Freestyle detect edges at face intersections? If not, is there a simple way of combining the objects to create a single object with the outer faces of all the objects? For $x\in\mathbb R\setminus\mathbb Q$, the set $\{nx-\lfloor nx\rfloor: n\in \mathbb{N}\}$ is dense on $[0,1)$ Proving that $\lim_{k\to \infty}\frac{f(x_k)-f(y_k)}{x_k-y_k}=f'(c)$ where $\lim_{k\to \infty}x_k=\lim_{k\to \infty}y_k=c$ with $x_k<c<y_k$ Question.  Suppose that a function $f$ is defined on an interval $I$, $c$ is a point of $I$, and {$x_k$} and {$y_k$} are any two sequences in $I$ such that $\lim_{k\to \infty}x_k=\lim_{k\to \infty}y_k=c$ with $x_k&lt;c&lt;y_k$ for all $k$. Prove that, if $f'(c)$ exists, then $\lim_{k\to \infty}\frac{f(x_k)-f(y_k)}{x_k-y_k}=f'(c).$   My Attempt.  Let $\epsilon_k=\frac{1}{k}$ be given.  For $\epsilon_1=1,$ there exists $\delta_1&gt;0$ such that $x_1,y_1\in I, x_1,y_1\in N'(c;\delta_1)$ implies $\vert \frac{f(x_1)-f(y_1)}{x_1-y_1} -f'(c) \vert&lt;\epsilon_1.$  For $\epsilon_2=\frac{1}{2},$ there exists $0&lt;\delta_2&lt;$min$\{\vert x_1-c \vert,\vert y_1-c \vert,\epsilon_2\}$ such that $x_2,y_2\in I, x_2,y_2\in N'(c;\delta_2)$ implies $\vert \frac{f(x_2)-f(y_2)}{x_2-y_2} -f'(c) \vert&lt;\epsilon_2.$  Similarly, for $\epsilon_{k}=\frac{1}{k},$ there exists $0&lt;\delta_k&lt;$min$\{\vert x_{k-1}-c \vert,\vert y_{k-1}-c \vert,\epsilon_k\}$ such that $x_k,y_k\in I, x_k,y_k\in N'(c;\delta_k)$ implies $\vert \frac{f(x_k)-f(y_k)}{x_k-y_k} -f'(c) \vert&lt;\epsilon_k.$  Then by taking the limit to infinity, we obtain $\lim_{k\to \infty}\frac{f(x_k)-f(y_k)}{x_k-y_k}=f'(c).$   It really took me a lot of time to finish the proof and I need this to be checked by an expert:) Is the proof okay? Any response would be appreciated! Using natural deduction to prove that $p \implies q \vdash \lnot p \lor q$ Using only rules of natural deduction, I am trying to prove that $$p \implies q \vdash \lnot p \lor q$$ but am having a lot of difficulty. I was able to prove the other direction.   Could anyone show me or point me to the right direction? What IDE to use for Python? Interpretation of the rating of a real transformer The rating of a real transformer is 15 kVA , 2300/230-V then can we say that the primary rms is 2300 V or can we say that the secondary rms is 230 V or both.  To clarify further, suppose to solve for certain characteristics of this transformer like primary current and secondary current i use the equivalent circuit equation of the transformer referred to the primary side as:  Vp = aVs + Req*Ip + jXeq*Ip  Then what should i use for Vp or Vs in the above equation looking at the rating of the transformer.  In the above equation looking at the rating data given above is Vp= 2300 or Vs = 230 ?As mentioned earlier the transformer is mentioned to be real. How can we remove the launcher that come with Unity on this new Ubuntu version ? Where did Hogwarts get money for salaries, food and other purchases? We know that you can't transfigure food, so you have to grow it or buy it. Ditto money.  I'm sure that aside from some medicinal plants Herbology Professor had there were no farmlands at Hogwarts. So they must have bought food (as well as potions ingredients for Snape etc...). And they needed to pay the teacher salaries.  Where did all that money come from according to canon?  Ministry funding?  Tuition?  Patent money on Dumbledore's inventions?  Philanthropic donations by Malfoys and co?  Other? Do you need a comma before a subordinating conjunction (like if)? Are both of the following sentences correct?  a: You can call me, if you need me.  OR  b: You can call if you need me.  Note that in a:, the comma is placed before the "if" and is not present in case b.  From this link, I gather that it isn't necessary because it's a short sentence:   But can someone point out an "official" source on this usage? Problem with clickable archive.org URLs Passing parameters from test methods Claim: If $(x_\alpha)_{\alpha\in A}$ is a collection of real numbers $x_\alpha\in [0,\infty]$ such that $\sum_{\alpha\in A}x_\alpha&lt;\infty$, then $x_\alpha=0$ for all but at most countably many $\alpha\in A$ ($A$ need not be countable).  Proof: Let $\sum_{\alpha\in A}x_\alpha=M&lt;\infty$. Consider $S_n=\{\alpha\in A \mid x_\alpha&gt;1/n\}$.  Then $M\geq\sum_{\alpha\in S_n}x_\alpha&gt;\sum_{\alpha\in S_n}1/n=\frac{N}{n}$, where $N\in\mathbb{N}\cup\{\infty\}$ is the number of elements in $S_n$.  Thus $S_n$ has at most $Mn$ elements.   Hence $\{\alpha\in A \mid x_\alpha&gt;0\}=\bigcup_{n\in\mathbb{N}}S_n$ is countable as the countable union of finite sets. $\square$  First, is my proof correct? Second, are there more concise/elegant proofs? Zero to the zero power – is $0^0=1$? Could someone provide me with a good explanation of why $0^0=1$?  My train of thought:  $x&gt;0$  $0^x=0^{x-0}=0^x/0^0$, so  $0^0=0^x/0^x=\,?$  Possible answers:   $0^0\cdot0^x=1\cdot0^0$, so $0^0=1$ $0^0=0^x/0^x=0/0$, which is undefined   PS. I've read the  on mathforum.org, but it isn't clear to me. Which arena do free and crown chests use when determining the cards you will get? If I am in arena X when I collect my tenth crown for the crown chest, or a free chest becomes unlocked, then proceed to climb to arena X+1 before opening the chests, which arena will be used to determine the cards I get? Will it use the arena I was in when I unlocked the chests in, or the arena I opened them in? How long does the ubuntu installation take and what to do after it? Do we need inertial frames in Lagrangian mechanics? How do you remove duplicates from a list whilst preserving order? Is there a built-in that removes duplicates from list in Python, whilst preserving order? I know that I can use a set to remove duplicates, but that destroys the original order. I also know that I can roll my own like this:  def uniq(input):   output = []   for x in input:     if x not in output:       output.append(x)   return output   (Thanks to  for that .)  But I'd like to avail myself of a built-in or a more Pythonic idiom if possible.  Related question: Here is my problematic code:  \begin{tikzpicture} \draw  (0,0)  to [bend left=20] (3,3) node[midway] {midway label}; \end{tikzpicture}   I wanted to put a label midway of the line, but instead the label is at (0,0).  If I remove [bend left=20], the line is not bent, and the label still misplaced. If I remove to and replace it by --, then it works fine, but my line is not bent any more.  \begin{tikzpicture} \draw (0,0) -- (3,3) node[midway] {midway label}; \end{tikzpicture}   Works fine.  The problem occurs with MacTeX 2011 and MacTeX 2012. Can Resharper be set to warn if IDisposable not handled correctly? Is there a setting in Resharper 4 (or even Visual Studio itself...) that forces a warning if I forget to wrap code in a using block, or ommit the proper Dispose call in a finally block?