sanitizing inputs with prepared PDO statements explanation
How can I prevent SQL injection in PHP?
I read it as a paperback around 2009ish. There are at least two books in the series. In the first book, we learn that the protagonist lives up in the mountains. Her people are distrusted by the people in the plains, and I think have either dark or olive skin. She leaves home to learn magic, something I think is rare in the world she lives in. When she arrives, there's a crazy power-hungry man at her destination and she has to hide who she is because otherwise he'd have her killed to prevent her from surpassing him. At some point, she winds up in a set of chambers set into the mountain where she finds a pool of water and carvings about dragons. Somehow, this leads into her learning to become a dragon, I think perhaps after meeting one. I want to say that the sequel got into her having dreams that turn out to be partly prophetic and partly communication.  One of the reasons the book sticks out in my memory is that, despite the mentions of the protagonists dusky skin, the cover depicts a fair-skinned blonde girl, I think holding a glowing globe of light. What is the LaTeX command for "em dash" (—)? I am trying to insert the symbol in the title of the question, which I copied from a PDF article, but it appears as space in the output file. What is the corresponding LaTeX command? Derivatives: enter "evaluated at" vertical bar with multiple values as subscripts Sorry for the long title, but how do I enter evaluated at (for a derivative), with multiple valuation criteria at the bottom of the the big | line?  Thanks! How to identify cells in Column A that contain any of the values in Column B First off, I'm not that advanced of an Excel user. I'm certain Excel can do what I'm about to ask, but I've yet to find a way in any of my attempts or searches.  My question is very similar to  except that A) the answers there didn't work for me, and B) even if it did, it's not quite the correct output I need.   Basically, I have 2 columns. Column A contains URLs (16388 rows). Column B contains URL slugs (202 rows).   I want to search to see if any of the values in column B are contained within any of the values of Column A. If they are, I want to return the value TRUE in column C.   From what I've read, VLOOKUP ought to work for this, but for the life of me I can't get it to work. I also tried in the answers in the link above that use COUNTIF and MATCH, but in both of those cases, all I got were FALSE returns, when I know that there are values in Column B that are contained in a URL in Column A.   Does that make sense?  EDIT: Both answers are providing results (thank you!), but I suspect I may not have asked the question correctly. In both of the answers, I'm getting TRUE results, but it looks like the TRUE is correlating to the slug in Column B rather than the URL in Column A. Let me put it this way:  I'll move the slugs from Column B to C so that B can be used for the TRUE responses. What I want the fomula to do is:   Look at URL in A1 Are any of the values in Column C contained within the URL in A1? If yes, then return TRUE in B1. If FALSE, leave it blank.    So I will be able to see which of the URLs contain the slugs I am searching for. I apologize for not being clearer in my original ask (though I feel like it's only a slight tweak from the answers I've already been given.) Let $G$ be a finite abelian group and let $\phi: G \rightarrow G$ be a group homomorphism. I am trying to show that there is a positive integer $n$ such that $G \cong \ker(\phi^{n}) \times \phi^{n}(G)$.  I know that since $G$ is abelian we have that $\ker(\phi^{k})$ and $\phi^{k}(G)$ are normal subgroups of $G$ for any $k$  I also suspect we have the following towers which stabilize at $m$ and $m'$  $$\phi(G) \unrhd \phi^{2}(G) \unrhd \cdots \unrhd \phi^{m}(G)=\phi^{m+1}(G)=\cdots$$  $$\ker(\phi) \unlhd \ker^{2}(\phi) \unlhd \cdots \unlhd \ker^{m'}(\phi)=\ker^{m'+1}(\phi)=\cdots$$  I know that if given a group of the form $HK$ where $H$ and $K$ are normal subgroups of $HK$ and $H\cap K=1$ then $H \times K \cong HK$. I want to apply this to this situation but I am unable to show how write $G$ as a product $HK$  Resolution One of the comments directed me to the following article:  The last part of which answers the question. Below is what is says:  Choose $n=\max(m,m')$, then we have for $x \in \ker^{n}(\phi) \cap \phi^{n}(x)$, this means that $x=\phi^{n}(y)$ for some $y \in G$. This gives:  $0=\phi^{n}(x)=\phi^{2n}(y)$ which means that $y \in \ker^{2n}\phi=\ker^{n}{\phi}$. and then we have that $0=x=\phi^{n}(y)$.  The answer below kindly points out that every element $x$ is contained in one of the cosets of $G/\ker^{n}(\phi)$, this means that $x=k+g$ for some $k \in \ker^{n}(\phi)$ and $g \in G$. We also have that $g=\phi^{n}(h)$ for some $h \in G$. Writing $x=k+\phi^{n}(h)$ essentially shows that $G=\ker(\phi^{n}) + \phi^{n}(G)$. Using the fact above, the claim follows. I have windows 7 in Arabic. Now I dowloaded QGIS 2.14.3-2 in French.  But when I installed it shows Arabic menu/tools...  How can I change the menu language to French? Are there network-wide reputation leagues? I would love to see which people have the most network-wide reputation, how can I see that? Aligned equation which can break through pages I'm writing long sequences of aligned math equations, and LaTeX interprete them as single, unbreakable objects... which is Ok if the equation is nowhere near the end of the page.  Q: Is there a way to (automatically) break the align equation through pages?  In the code below,  \documentclass{report}                                                           \usepackage{amsmath}                                                             \usepackage{lipsum}                                                               \begin{document}                                                                 \lipsum[1-4]                                                                     \begin{align*}                                                                   FFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFF &amp;= \partial_t(p)\\                                                               &amp;= \partial_t(m v)\\                                                             &amp;= m a\\                                                                         &amp;= m \dot{v}\\                                                                   &amp;= m \ddot{x}\\                                                                  &amp;= \partial_t(p)\\                                                               &amp;= \partial_t(m v)\\                                                             &amp;= ma\\                                                                         &amp;= m \dot{v}\\                                                                   &amp;= m \ddot{x}                                                                  \end{align*}                                                                     \end{document}      all of the equation goes to the second page. I do not want that  If I break manually, by closing the align and open another, I lose the alignment with the previous part.   \documentclass{report}                                                           \usepackage{amsmath}                                                             \usepackage{lipsum}                                                               \begin{document}                                                                 \lipsum[1-4]                                                                     \begin{align*}                                                                   FFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFF &amp;= \partial_t(p)\\                                                               &amp;= \partial_t(m v)\\                                                             &amp;= m a\\                                                                         &amp;= m \dot{v}\\                                                                   &amp;= m \ddot{x}\\                                                                \end{align*}                                                                     \begin{align*}                                                                     &amp;= \partial_t(p)\\                                                               &amp;= \partial_t(m v)\\                                                             &amp;= m a\\                                                                         &amp;= m \dot{v}\\                                                                   &amp;= m \ddot{x}                                                                  \end{align*}                                                                     \end{document}   I do not want that either.  So far I read about breqn packages, but it seems not to do what I would like.  Any Suggestion?? Thx. Creating node shapes I am currently learning how to use TikZ/PGF to make some figures for a project report, and so I have a question:     Is there is a practical way of making a particular object into a node?   The object I have in mind is shown in the Figure below. I want the object to consist in the big circle, the two circular arcs, the label and anchors at north, south, east and west. The dotted lines are simply there to indicate that I am going to have paths going out of these points, which is why I need the anchors there.     I include the source, in the case that it is useful to anyone.  \begin{tikzpicture} \draw[help lines, gray, dotted] (-2,-2) grid (2,2);  \begin{scope}[shift={ (0,0) } ]     \begin{scope}[rotate=90]         \draw[thick] (-1,0) arc[start angle=-90, delta angle=90, %                               x radius=1, y radius=1] -- (0,1) %NW                      (0,-1) arc[start angle=180, delta angle=-90, %                                    x radius=1, y radius=1] -- (1,0); %SE         \draw[gray] (0,0) circle (1);     \end{scope} % Anchor replacements     \node(N1)       at (0,1)    {};     \node(S1)       at (0,-1)   {};     \node(E1)       at (1,0)    {};     \node(W1)       at (-1,0)   {}; % Label     \node(Crossing number) at (0,0) {1}; \end{scope}  \path[thick, gray, dotted] [ out=90,   in=270]     (N1.center) edge (0,2) [ out=180,  in=0]       (W1.center) edge (-2,0) [ out=270,  in=90]      (S1.center) edge (0,-2) [ out=360,  in=180]     (E1.center) edge (2,0); \end{tikzpicture}   PS. I have had a look at the Manual, but I could not find a description of how to do this. How do I print all lines of a file with duplicate values in a certain column Given a file like this:  1,768,12,46576457,7898 1,123,435,134,146 2,345,6756856,12312,1311 5,234,567465,12341,1341 1,3245,4356345,2442,13 9,423,2342,121,463 9,989,342,121,1212   I would like to list all rows (in bash terminal) such that the value in column 1 appears at least twice (in column 1). The result should be  1,768,12,46576457,7898 1,123,435,134,146 1,3245,4356345,2442,13 9,423,2342,121,463 9,989,342,121,1212 What are the correct settings for min-memory and max-memory in this use case?  The server has 8GB ram, dual Intel Xeon processors, running Windows Server 2008 R2 / Sql Server 2008 Standard Edition. It's running several databases ranging from 30GB - 5GB in size.  Originally the memory usage was set to the default settings (min=0 max=2,147,483,647). On these settings most of the memory usage was taken up by sqlservr.exe and the server would eventually need to be restarted every day or two. It would run normally at first but within a day start to timeout on simple operations like looking up a record using the primary key.   I have changed min=4,096 and max=6,144. This results in only 1.4GB memory usage. However now all four cpus are running at 50-60% cpu usage constantly. Tasks are taking roughly 1/3rd longer to execute, although the server is much more stable. If $p\in\Bbb Z[X]$ show that: $ \max\limits_{x\in [0,1]}\left|p(x) \right| > \frac{1}{e^{n}}. $ This is problem 10 from the International Mathematical Competition for University Students of 2015, from day 2, in Bulgaria. I think it is an interesting problem!     Let $n$ be a positive integer, and $p(x)$ be a polynomial of degree $n$ with integer coefficients. Prove that   $$ \max_{x\in [0,1]}\left|p(x) \right| &gt; \frac{1}{e^{n}}. $$   Proposed by Géza Kós, Eötvös University, Budapest. Interpolating functions returned by NDSolve do not plot Why does Unix store timestamps in a signed integer? Why is a signed integer used to represent timestamps? There is a clearly defined start at 1970 that's represented as 0, so why would we need numbers before that? Are negative timestamps used anywhere? The grammaticality of "that don't impress me much" I'd like to know how the sentence "That don't impress me much" sounds to a native English speaker.  The phrase is the title of a song by Shania Twain, and to my eyes it contains a clear error. It is obviously intended, and I want to know what was the effect that the author wanted to obtain.  Other examples that come to mind:   “She's got a ticket to ride, but she don't care” — The Beatles “My love don't cost a thing” — Jennifer Lopez “It don't matter” — Akon “She don't care about me” — heard in the Lost series “It Don't Mean a Thing” — a jazz album title “The Sun Don't Lie” — another album title Online calculators such as  (view page source) use the below formulas to get meters per degree. I understand in general how distance per degree varies depending on latitude location, but I do not understand how that translates to the below. More specifically, where do the constants, the 3 "cos" terms in each formula, and coefficients (2, 4, 6; 3, and 5) for "lat" come from?      // Set up "Constants"     m1 = 111132.92;     // latitude calculation term 1     m2 = -559.82;       // latitude calculation term 2     m3 = 1.175;         // latitude calculation term 3     m4 = -0.0023;       // latitude calculation term 4     p1 = 111412.84;     // longitude calculation term 1     p2 = -93.5;         // longitude calculation term 2     p3 = 0.118;         // longitude calculation term 3      // Calculate the length of a degree of latitude and longitude in meters     latlen = m1 + (m2 * Math.cos(2 * lat)) + (m3 * Math.cos(4 * lat)) +             (m4 * Math.cos(6 * lat));     longlen = (p1 * Math.cos(lat)) + (p2 * Math.cos(3 * lat)) +                 (p3 * Math.cos(5 * lat)); Note: the eventual outcome of this discussion involved dropping this particular off-topic reason, along with other changes. See:  &nbsp; &mdash;Shog     I was using the reason "demonstrate a minimal understanding" myself quite frequently, but the more I review, the more I have doubts about it and I think this reason can either be dropped entirely or at least rephrased, so I started to use "problems with code you've written must describe the specific problem" instead:     Questions asking for code must demonstrate a minimal understanding of the problem being solved.   So the poster has posted some description, maybe even a snippet of code and in his mind that already proves that he has that minimal understanding required. After all he described the problem and what he tried to solve. So telling him that he lacks that understanding is rather rude, and from the posters point of view doesn't even apply. What both version of the reason not emphasize is that a description of a problem is not various versions of     it doesn't work   but that we rather mean really specific details (see below). I can often see in the reopen review queue that the "improved" version just includes a more verbatim description, while what usually would be expected is some specific error message, a trace or a log, or whatever applies.  Then it continues with:     Include attempted solutions, why they didn't work, and the expected results. See also: Stack Overflow question checklist   comparing it to:     problems with code you've written must describe the specific problem — and include valid code to reproduce it — in the question itself. See SSCCE.org for guidance.   Which says essentially the same, only in more detail.   So the "minimum understanding" reason is IMO a more rude version of the reason telling the user that an SSCCE is missing.  The intent of giving this reason is to tell the user that he needs to give exact details to be able to help him, so IMO a checklist would be much better. Something like:     Your question was closed because it may not provide enough details. Things you can do to improve your question to get an answer include:         Format the code in a way that makes it readable and easily understandable.   Provide the smallest working sample of code demonstrating the problem (link to SSCCE)   Include your input and output.   If applicable provide logs (i.e. Android debugging log, stack trace, etc.).   If applicable provide the exact error messages (compiler, etc.).      And something like this should be best included already in the banner that appears when a question is closed instead of being hidden in some pages you often enough have to actively looking for.  It might be helpful to adjust this, based on the tags or close reason, as I realize that I'm more focused on the programming area, and the above list may not apply to other areas of SO.  Update  Another thing I forgot to mention (but wanted to) is this:     Questions asking for code   Is IMO essentially an invitation of the type of questions     I have a problem, can you provide the solution? (with an optional please)   while     Questions concerning problems with code you've written   puts at least some emphasis on the fact that the poster has to put some effort himself in trying to solve the problem by providing the code which he used to attempt the solution. static_assert fails compilation even though template function is called nowhere Do I need a UK or Ireland transit visa when flying from the US to a Schengen country? I am travelling to Budapest and therefore have a Schengen Visa. I hold an Indian passport and a valid US visa. I'm travelling from Chicago-Heathrow-Budapest and returning by Budapest-Dublin-Chicago.  Would I need a transit visa for UK/Ireland?  UPDATE  Hoping this will help someone someday.   I was not allowed to board my return flight (BUD-DUB-ORD) because I do not hold an overnight Irish Transit Visa. They said I could have transited happily if the connecting flight was in the same day, but because I would have to originally land at 10 PM and catch the connecting flight next morning at 10 AM, I needed a transit visa. Well, I thought it was BS, but couldn't help comply with the rules. I booked another last minute ticket and flew via Warsaw via LOT. When am I entitled to participate in a stock split? — record date, split date, ex date Stock split announcements usually mention a few dates — record date (&quot;date of record&quot;), split date (&quot;distribution date&quot;, &quot;pay date&quot;, or &quot;payment date&quot;), ex date (&quot;ex-split date&quot;). Examples:  :  Each Apple shareholder of record at the close of business on August 24, 2020 will receive three additional shares for every share held on the record date, and trading will begin on a split-adjusted basis on August 31, 2020.   :  Each stockholder of record on August 21, 2020 will receive a dividend of four additional shares of common stock for each then-held share, to be distributed after close of trading on August 28, 2020. Trading will begin on a stock split-adjusted basis on August 31, 2020.    In the case of the Tesla split, the record date is August 21, the split date is August 28 (Friday), and the ex date is August 31 (Monday). Apple's  provides definitions of these dates:  What is the effective date of the split? There are several key dates. The Record Date – August 24, 2020 - determines which shareholders are entitled to receive additional shares due to the split. The Split Date – August 28, 2020 - shareholders are due split shares after the close of business on this date. The Ex Date – August 31, 2020 - the date determined by Nasdaq when Apple common shares will trade at the new split-adjusted price.  However, further down in the FAQ, there is an explanation that seems to contradict the definition of the record date given above:  What happens if I buy or sell shares on or after the Record Date and before the Ex Date? [...] If you buy shares on or after the Record Date but before the Ex Date, you will purchase the shares at the pre-split price and will receive (or your brokerage account will be credited with) the shares purchased. Following the split, you will receive (or your brokerage account will be credited with) the additional shares resulting from the stock split.  Judging by the Apple FAQ, the way the record date works for stock splits is completely different from the way the record date works for cash dividends. With cash dividends, people who become shareholders of record after the record date are not entitled to the dividends. With stock splits, however, people who purchase shares after the record date (but before the ex date) are entitled to the stock split. Furthermore, for stock splits, the record date comes before the ex date, whereas for cash dividends, the record date comes after the ex date. It appears that I am not the only one confused about this. A quick internet search reveals years and years of confusion regarding the record date for stock splits. An extremely common point of confusion is the apparently incorrect assumption that the record date for stock splits works in the same way as the record date for cash dividends. A few questions:  Am I right that the record date for stock splits works differently from the record date of cash dividends? The only relevant dates for a stock split seem to be the split date (on which I will receive new shares after the market closes), and the ex date (on which I can sell the new shares on stock exchanges at a post-split price). It seems that the record date is completely irrelevant. What is the record date for? From my understanding, the price of the stock will be reduced at the instant the new shares are distributed (on the split date). Is this correct?