How to do a right click detection command
Minecraft item right/left click detection
I've installed emacsformacosx on my OSX box.  I'd like to shove my macmini in a data center and run it headless.  I've gotten x-windows working.  If I run xeyes, it displays on my Windows 7 client.  Emacs works from the command line on the osx box.  However, if I start up emacs from the windows client, it pops it up on the server instead of the client.  What am I doing wrong? Node for setting render colour, regardless of lighting I'm trying to make a material node setup to set final render colors, regardless of lighting conditions. Is such a setup possible? If a commutative ring is semiprime and its prime ideals are maximal then it is von Neumann regular (absolutely flat). If a commutative ring is semiprime and its prime ideals are maximal then it is von Neumann regular (absolutely flat).  The converse, although not immediately apparent, can be proven quite easily. But I've been stuck on this one for awhile.  I found that Bourbaki has a question in his treatise on commutative algebra, namely: if all points in Spec(A) are closed (ie. prime ideals are maximal) then A/R (where R is the nilradical) is von Neumann regular (absolutely flat). If this can be proven, the above statement follows immediately since the nilradical of a semiprime ring 0?  Ideas?   Ps: this is my first time posting a question so apologies for any formatting issues. I've already done a lot of searching (in particular: ) to try to prove this statement:      $f: A \to B$ is injective if and only if it has a left inverse. [I'm going to also assume $A$ and $B$ are nonempty.]   My attempt so far:     $\Leftarrow$ Suppose $f$ has a left inverse and $f(a_1) = f(a_2)$ for    $a_1, a_2 \in A$. Then there is a function $g: B \to A$ such that   $g\left(f(a_1)\right) = a_1$ and $g\left(f(a_2)\right) = a_2$. Since   $g$ is well-defined, it follows that $g\left(f(a_1)\right) =  g\left(f(a_2)\right)$, and hence $a_1 = a_2$.         $\Rightarrow$Now   suppose $f$ is injective. Then $f(a_1) = f(a_2) \implies a_1 = a_2$.   Furthermore, since $A$ is nonempty, there is an element $x \in A$.   Define $g: B \to A$ by  \begin{equation*} g(b) = \begin{cases}  f^{-1}(b), &amp; b \in \text{Im}(f) \\ x, &amp; b \in A \setminus  \text{Im}(f)\text{.} \end{cases} \end{equation*} This mapping is   well-defined, since if $f$ is injective, $f^{-1}(b)$ is unique.   My main question: does this imply that if $f: A \to B$ is injective that any mapping $g: \text{Im}(f) \to A$ is bijective? Otherwise, I don't understand why we can even use $f^{-1}$ on an element. [Please read the link above for more details - in proof 1.] Why is a suspicious program draining my battery with GPS usage? How do I draw ovals in TikZ? How can I draw this graph in the pic via tikz. Laptop with no battery Can druids Wild Shape into creatures other than beasts? Under Wild Shape it says "assume the shape of a beast" you have seen before. Does this mean they can only transform into creatures that have the beast type, such as bear, wolf, crocodile, etc.? Or can they turn into things with other types, like dragon, monstrosity, humanoid, fiend, etc.? What's that ship in the opening credits of 'Star Trek: Enterprise'? How is Gauss' Law (integral form) arrived at from Coulomb's Law, and how is the differential form arrived at from that? On a similar note: when using Gauss' Law, do you even begin with Coulomb's law, or does one take it as given that flux is the surface integral of the Electric field in the direction of the normal to the surface at a point? Proving square root of a square is the same as absolute value Lets say I have a function defined as $f(x) = \sqrt {x^2}$. Common knowledge of square roots tells you to simplify to $f(x) = x$ (we'll call that $g(x)$) which may be the same problem, but it isn't the same equation. For example, say I put $-1$ into them:  $\begin{align} f(x) &amp;= \sqrt {x^2} \\ f(-1) &amp;= \sqrt {(-1)^2} \\ f(-1) &amp;= \sqrt {1} \\ f(-1) &amp;= 1 \end{align}$  $\begin{align} g(x) &amp;= x \\ g(-1) &amp;= -1 \end{align}$  thereby, we conclude that $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ do not produce the same results even though they are mathematically the same. This is also shown when we try to graph the functions:  :    :    :    From this, we can see that given $f(x) = \sqrt {x^2}$, when simplified is not the same as $f(x) = x$. So, is there any way to prove that $y = \sqrt {x^2}$ is not the same as $y = x$ for negative values, but is infact the same as $y = \mid x \mid$? How do I transfer iPhone contacts to an Android phone? Launch shell scripts from anywhere Is it possible to run my scripts located in ~/scripts from anywhere?  Say i want to run ./scriptname regardless of my current working directory. Formula field is too big to execute (5,480 characters) I got an error when i am trying to add fomrula in formula field.  Error: Compiled formula is too big to execute (5,480 characters). Maximum size is 5,000 characters  My formula is   (ED__c+Service_Tax__c+Total_Site_Work_Price1__c+Total_Selling_Price_Based_on1__c )*WCTper__c   In this formula ED__c, Total_Site_Work_Price1__c, Total_Selling_Price_Based_on1__c are also Formula fields. And these formulas are also contain fomrula fields.  How can i calculate the formula..? Where can I ask a question about finding general software that meets certain requirements? I have a list of requirements for a program, but I don't know what program meets these criteria. That's about general-purpose software, for example, not a programming IDE or statistical workbench, questions about which would certainly go to respective sites.  Is this question appropriate on Stack Overflow? Where should I ask about it? On Super User or elsewhere? Is it correct to hyphenate with compound premodifiers? If so, where is the hyphen placed? How can I draw simple trees in LaTeX? I need to draw a tree, and constantly using dotty and including the PNGs is starting to be a pain. Is there a way to get LaTeX to draw it's own trees that doesn't involve learning an entirely new language like TikZ? I've been wondering what makes the  such an important model. What I came up with:   It is a (relatively) simple system, making it a perfect example for physics students to learn principles of classical and quantum mechanics. The harmonic oscillator potential can be used as a model to approximate many physical phenomena quite well.   The first point is sort of meaningless though, I think the real reason is my second point. I'm looking for some materials to read about the different applications of the HO in different areas of physics. Is there any evolutionary/physiological advantage to multi-lateral symmetry? Just wondering ; I get the impression a large number of multicellular organisms are multi-lateral in their physical structure. Why would evolution/mutation have retained multi-lateral symmetry in an organism? What advantage/s does symmetry provide an organism?  EDIT:  By multi-lateral symmetry I mean at-least bi-lateral symmetry (as in the case of many beings such as elephants, crabs and fishes), but perhaps more than bi-lateral too (starfish come to mind)  END EDIT: Why is time special? In Special Relativity, the spacetime interval between two events is $s^2 = -(c{\Delta}t)^2+({\Delta}x)^2+({\Delta}y)^2+({\Delta}z)^2$ giving the Minkowski metric $\eta_{\mu\nu}=\text{diag}(-1, 1, 1, 1)$. What is the justification for making time have a negative coefficient, and how closely is that related to the 2nd law of thermodynamics? Sure, by letting $\eta = \text{diag}(1, 1, 1, 1)$, we get a pretty boring spacetime, and the boosts in the Poincaré group become trig instead of hyperbolic functions, but what's the physical reasoning behind this?