Please tell me how byte value changed
Why are integer literals with leading zeroes interpreted strangely?
Not sure if there is a cultural difference. In our family it is considered normal to frighten the child so that he behaves the way we want.  Example- Parent: Eat that quickly or the God will punish you! Parent: Don't go on the stairs. The ghost is hiding there and it'll catch you! Parent: Be quiet or the police will grab you!  Does this kind of behavior from the parent's side has any abnormal effects on the baby in the longer run? Can this behavior be accepted as normal?  Has any research been done on this aspect? A person who cannot understand that there may be other perspectives Embedding images explodes generated PDF size Implicit Differentiation Help I have to use implicit differentiation to find $\frac{dy}{dx}$ given:  $$x^2 \cos(y) + \sin(2y) = xy$$  I don't even know where to begin, I missed the class where we went over implicit differentiation, and because of that, I am completely stuck.   Thank you everyone.  Edit: I don't know how to make the equation look all nice and whatnot, so sorry about that Getting disk i/o statistics for single process in Linux How to convert strings into integers in Python? Can commuting matrices $X,Y$ always be written as polynomials of some matrix $A$? Consider square matrices over a field $K$. I don't think additional assumptions about $K$ like algebraically closed or characteristic $0$ are pertinent, but feel free to make them for comfort. For any such matrix $A$, the set $K[A]$ of polynomials in $A$ is a commutative subalgebra of $M_n(K)$; the question is whether for any pair of commuting matrices $X,Y$ at least one such commutative subalgebra can be found that contains both $X$ and $Y$.  I was asking myself this in connection with frequently recurring requests to completely characterise commuting pairs of matrices, like . While providing a useful characterisation seems impossible, a positive anwer to the current question would at least provide some answer.  Note that in many rather likely situations one can in fact take $A$ to be one of the matrices $X,Y$, for instance when one of the matrices , or more generally if its  (so coincides with the characteristic polynomial). However this is not always possible, as can be easily seen for instance for diagonal matrices $X=\operatorname{diag}(0,0,1)$ and $Y=\operatorname{diag}(0,1,1)$. However in that case both will be polynomials in $A=\operatorname{diag}(x,y,z)$ for any distinct values $x,y,z$ (then $K[A]$ consists of all diagonal matrices); although in the example in  the matrices are not both diagonalisable, an appropriate $A$ can be found there as well.   I thought for some time that any maximal commutative subalgebra of $M_n(K)$ was of the form $K[A]$ (which would imply a positive answer) for some $A$ with minimal polynomial of degree$~n$, and that a positive answer to my question was in fact instrumental in proving this. However I was wrong on both counts: there exist (for $n\geq 4$) commutative subalgebras of dimension${}&gt;n$ (whereas $\dim_KK[A]\leq n$ for all $A\in M_n(K)$) as shown in , and I was forced to correct  in the light of this; however it seems (at least in the cases I looked at) that many (all?) pairs of matrices $X,Y$ in such a subalgebra still admit a matrix $A$ (which in general is not in the subalgebra) such that $X,Y\in K[A]$. This indicates that a positive answer to my question would not contradict the existence of such large commutative subalgebras: it would just mean that to obtain a maximal dimensional subalgebra containing $X,Y$ one should in general avoid throwing in an $A$ with $X,Y\in K[A]$. I do think these large subalgebras easily show that my question but for three commuting matrices has a negative answer.  Finally I note that  to the cited MO question mentions a result by Gerstenhaber that the dimension of the subalgebra generated two commuting matrices in $M_n(K)$ cannot exceed$~n$. This unfortunately does not settle my question (if $X,Y$ would generate a subalgebra of dimension${}&gt;n$, it would have proved a negative answer); it just might be that the mentioned result is true because of the existence of $A$ (I don't have access to a proof right now, but given the formulation it seems unlikely that it was done this way).  OK, I've tried to build up the suspense. Honesty demands that I say that I do know the answer to my question, since a colleague of mine provided a convincing one. I will however not give this answer right away, but post it once there has been some time for gathering answers here; who knows somebody will prove a different answer than the one I have (heaven forbid), or at least give the same answer with a different justification. Is it possible to get old suggestion system back in Firefox 43.0? With the new update, the first suggested link is just domain. In older versions, the first suggested link was the page I visited the most and I got used to this great feature.  Is it possible to remove the new domain suggestion, for example "Visit ebay.co.uk"?  See image attached When is using the past perfect tense not necessary? Is it more natural to speak in simple past or past perfect when explaining past events to a friend? It seems like Americans use more simple past in everyday life than past perfect. I found this example online:     I had almost completed my essay when my computer suddenly crashed and I noticed that I had forgotten to save the document.   Is it wrong to say the following instead?     I was almost done with my essay when my computer suddenly crashed and I noticed that I forgot to save the document.   Maybe it's just my friends, but I rarely hear them speak in past perfect, so I'm really torn about using past perfect when it isn't necessary. Can the category of chain complexes be realized as a functor category? As the title says, is there some sort of category $\mathsf{C}$ which can be thought of as the "walking chain complex", so that the category of chain complexes in some other category $\mathsf{A}$ can be realized as $\mathsf{A}^\mathsf{C}$ (or perhaps some subcategory thereof)? Are the rules regarding absolute modifiers too absolute? A common grammar lesson that was taught to me in the US and that I've had to teach abroad in EFL classrooms is that we're not to use adverbs of emphasis with absolute modifiers, just as we're not supposed to use them as comparatives or superlatives.  Classic egregious examples of this mistake include very unique and more perfect, which seem obviously flawed to me. Other instances of further modified absolute modifiers are similarly meaningless or contradictory in nature.  I wonder, though, if the rule that I learned isn't overly broad, and whether it's taught similarly in the UK and elsewhere. I find myself modifying absolute modifiers quite regularly, and in some circumstances I think it's not only logical and correct, but quite meaningful. Phrases like almost exactly or virtually all or practically infinite possess a specific meaning that can't really be replicated using nonabsolutes like very nearly or most or quite long.  In my own speech and writing, I use such phrases exactly as I see fit, so this isn't a request for permission, per se. I'm more curious about whether there's a more appropriate rule regarding absolutes that you rely on (and might be used in a classroom). How to get the client IP address in PHP Incorrectly answered 'No' to "Any previous visa refusals..." on a UK Standard Visitor visa application. How can I fix my mistake? I'm from Lebanon and I've been working in Saudi Arabia for nine years. In 2012, I put the money that I collected from my job as a teacher in my father's Lebanese account since I didn't have one in Lebanon. During the interview, my interviewer told me that my application will be rejected because I don't have proof that this money is mine and clearance officer will think someone else gave me the money. I didn't know that I had to bring with me from Saudi Arabia an employment letter and bank statements to prove that this money is mine and I earned it by working in Saudi Arabia. Anyways, my visa did get refused as my interviewer had told me it would be.    Last May, I was granted a US visitor visa Multi Entry for 5 years. I wanted to visit the US in August for 10 days but my mom entered the hospital so I had to postpone it. Now I'm applying for a teacher training program in the UK. I received an invitation letter from Brighton University and so I applied for a UK Standard Visitor visa. After I paid and printed the application, I realized that I answered the question Any previous visa rejections ... with "NO" and I don't know how should I fix this.  Please note that I still didn't give my biometrics, I still didn't use my US visa which I received on May 2016, I paid for my application so I can't amend it online. I'm supposed to give my biometrics and submit my documents this Monday.  If I don't say anything will they check it and refuse me?    Will my US visa be an advantage and they will disregard the previous rejection or should I correct it when I submit my documents this Monday? Best way to migrate a huge SQL Server database with low downtime over network Problem definition  Our database server needs to be transferred to an other datacenter. It runs on Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Enterprise (64-bit) and contains two databases of about 2TB and 1TB.  Having little to no downtime for this would be ideal.  Workload  Those databases are used for a .NET website and are constantly getting updated.   Having it not available over the weekend would be acceptable though. The currently in use DB would remain the only one in use until the switch over to the new one.  That switch would ideally be made just by changing DNS entries to point to the new DB server while making sure the DB is not being updated.  Also, time taken by this operation does not really matter as long as the switch from one server to the other (downtime) is kept low.  Approaches considered   Backup and restore  This has been done in the past but involved a high downtime even though it was done through an internal network, so more efficiently than through Internet Log shipping  As far as I understand, this approach would minimize downtime by configuring a master/slave and transferring  an exact copy of the master DB to its slave being read only. As mentioned above, no access to the slave would be necessary and we just need a way to have a replica of the master DB without data corruption.   It also seems to be quite efficient in terms of resources utilization and wouldn't impact to much the master performance.   I might be wrong about this approach so feel free to correct me. Database mirroring  I'm not too aware of that approach but it seems like a valid option. No need to have real time sync and performance of the master is quite important so asynchronous would be the way to go if this approach were to be chosen. Other options?  That server runs directly on bare metal hardware so lower level solutions are unfortunately not an option. Maybe there is a better way to get this done?   Constraints  As described, those databases are quite big to the point they are hard to maintain but that's an other problem.  The versions of SQL Server will be the same (Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Enterprise 64-bit).  It will have to be transferred over network between two datacenters so most probably over Internet. Having disks sent from one site to the other for an initial sync is unfortunately not an option. Having some sort of security for the transfer would be ideal but we will do the best of this situation.  That should give a quite good overview of our needs for this task and hopefully some of you had to face that situation before. "the 90s were the best decade ever" or "the 90s was the best decade ever"  "the 90s" and "decade" are both referring to the same singular period of 10 years, so "was" seems to make more sense. "90s were" rolls off the tongue better though. Possessive 's for things Evaluate $\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n}[(n +1)(n+2) \cdots (n+n)]^{\frac{1}{n}}$ Evaluate $$\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n}[(n +1)(n+2) \cdots (n+n)]^{\frac{1}{n}}$$  We can write as $\displaystyle\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n}[(n +1)(n+2) \cdots (n+n)]^{\frac{1}{n}}$ $$= \lim_{n \to \infty}\left[\frac{(n +1)(n+2) \cdots (n+n)}{n^n}\right]^{\frac{1}{n}} = \lim_{n \to \infty}\left[(1+\frac{1}{n})(1+\frac{2}{n})\cdots (1+\frac{n}{n})\right]^{\frac{1}{n}}$$  I have used this result if $\{a_n\}$ is a sequence of positive term which is convergent to $l$ and $b_n = (a_1. a_2 . \cdots a_n)^{1/n}$ ,thhen $b_n$ converges to $l$  here $a_n = 2$, but i think it is not right,how to use this result in this question. Give me hint how to proceed . Thank you Using strtok with a std::string I have a string that I would like to tokenize. But the C strtok() function requires my string to be a char*. How can I do this simply?  I tried:  token = strtok(str.c_str(), " ");    which fails because it turns it into a const char*, not a char* How do I set environment variables? I'm trying to set up Apache Tomcat on my pc, and it wants me to set up an environment variable for CATALINA_HOME.  Does any know how to do this? I'm tutoring high school students. I've always taught them that:     A charged particle moving without acceleration produces an electric as well as a magnetic field.   It produces an electric field because it's a charge particle. But when it is at rest, it doesn't produce a magnetic field. All of a sudden when it starts moving, it starts producing a magnetic field. Why? What happens to it when it starts moving? What makes it produce a magnetic field when it starts moving?