19.04 - rtl8812au-dkms installed but not appearing as module
Wireless antenna does not appear despite its driver being installed
What is an "Emergency Call," and can I  set number for it? I've sectioned of this area in the sea near my base, and I need to get rid of all the water from it.  From what I've tried the only way I can see to clear it is fully cover one layer, delete the blocks, then go down to the next layer. Is that the only way I can clear the area or is there a better approach?  Ideally I'd like a survival method (if there is a better one), but any commands what could be used I'd like to hear just so I can learn more commands :) An error of Graphing Calculator Desmos? Can someone explain to me this error of the Desmos graphic calculator? Why ? For other values of $x$, the exact value of $f(x)$ is obtained.  Or am I wrong when I assure that $f(\sqrt2)=0$? I'm trying to compute this integral, $$\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{\ln x}{x^{a}(x+1)}dx \hbox{ where } 0&lt;a&lt;1$$ I drew a typical Pacman contour with branch cut at positive real axis. Then, we have $$\int_{\Gamma}\frac{\ln z}{z^{a}(z+1)}dz=\left(\int_{L_{1}}+\int_{L_{2}}+\int_{C_{R}}+\int_{C_{\epsilon}}\right)\frac{\ln z}{z^{a}(z+1)}dz$$ The function has a pole at $z=-1$. Then, by residue theorem, the whole integral becomes  \begin{align*} \int_{\Gamma}\frac{\ln z}{z^{a}(z+1)}dz&amp;=2\pi i\text{res}(\frac{\ln z}{z^{a}(z+1)};-1)\\&amp;=2\pi i\lim_{z\rightarrow-1}(z+1)\frac{\ln z}{z^{a}(z+1)}\\&amp;=2\pi i\lim_{z\rightarrow-1}\frac{\ln z}{z^{a}}\\&amp;=2\pi i\frac{\ln e^{i\pi}}{e^{i\pi a}}\\&amp;=2\pi i\frac{\ln1+i\pi}{e^{i\pi a}}\\&amp;=-\frac{2\pi^{2}}{(e^{i\pi})^{a}} \end{align*} On $L_1$, $z=xe^{i\epsilon}$ where $\epsilon\leq x\leq R$  On $L_{2}$, $z=xe^{i(2\pi-\epsilon)}$ where $\epsilon\leq x\leq R$  On $C_{R}$, $z=Re^{i\theta}$ where $\epsilon\leq\theta\leq2\pi-\epsilon$  Lastly on On $C_{\epsilon}$, $z=\epsilon e^{i\theta}$ where $\epsilon\leq\theta\leq2\pi-\epsilon$  So I tried to compute them separately and I anticipate the curves will both go to $0$ by ML inequality, and two linear integrals will consist of the term $\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{\ln x}{x^{a}(x+1)}dx$ and hence simply solve for it. But I'm having trouble physically solving it out. I think the log is throwing me off. Can anybody please help me? Making numeric bullets indent properly in Word Execute bash script from URL That's kind of a recursive Google Search that should be self-explanatory. It did take me some time to tweak the sentence and trying to find a number which would correspond precisely, the reason why I changed it to "hundreds" instead! :P  If you have used Google long enough you certainly have stumbled on situations similar to this, many times. Whenever it shows less than 10 pages it's quite easy to see it. The point is: the number of results on any page except the last one seems like a terrible estimate.  What's even weirder,  the estimate suddenly becomes much better and almost exactly the same on all pages than it is on the last page - the only page that's always correct.  So, anyone knows why? Do you know any open source tool to automatically align images, similar to the auto align feature in Photoshop? I'm teaching my self topology with the aid of a book. I'm trying to prove the following is a topology:     Let X be an infinite set. Show that $\mathscr{T}_2=\{U \subseteq X : U = \emptyset $ or $ X\setminus U $ is countable$ \} $ is a topology.   My book calls this set the ""  Please let me know if my proof is valid.     corollary [A]: The union of countable sets are countable.    proof: I'm going to take as a given that that the union of finite set are finite, and just prove the case of . A set is countable infinite if there is a bijection between the set and the natural numbers. Let $A$ and $B$ be a countable infinite sets. Now let $f$ be the bijection between $A$ and $\mathbb{N}$ and $g$ be $B$'s bijection.  $f:\mathbb{N}  \rightarrow  A$  $g:  \mathbb{N}  \rightarrow B$  There can always exist a bijection $h$ that maps $A \cup B $ to $\mathbb{N}$. To account for non disjoint sets, let $B' = B \setminus A$; (note: $A \cup B = A \cup B'$)  $h:  \mathbb{N}   \rightarrow  A \cup B'$  $ h(x) = \left\{         \begin{array}{ll}             f(\frac{1}{2}x); &amp; \quad x \in 2\mathbb{N} \\             g(\frac{x+1}{2}); &amp; \quad x \in 2\mathbb{N}+1         \end{array}     \right. $   $h^{-1}(x)$ would map $A$ to the even numbers, and $B'$ to the odd numbers.  Therefore, The union of countable sets are countable. (QED)  Now to verify the definition.     (i) X and Ø are elements of $\mathscr{T}$.   Ø is given in the definition of $\mathscr{T}_2$. Also, the empty set is considered finite, with cardinality zero. Thus $X$ is in $\mathscr{T}_1$ because its complement is finite, and finite numbers are countable.      (ii) $\mathscr{T}$ is closed under finite intersections.   Let:$V_k \subseteq X$ be any countable set. (ie: $V_1, V_2...$ are all countable sets)  So Then, $U_k = X \setminus V_k$, would be the subsets of $\mathscr{T}_2$.  $U_k \cap U_j = X \setminus (V_k \cup V_j) $, due to De Morgan's law.   Thus, $U_k \cap U_j \in  \mathscr{T}_2$, since the Union of two countable sets is also countable[A]. And This reasoning can be extended to any finite amount of intersections.       (iii) $\mathscr{T}$ is closed under arbitrary unions.   Let $A=\bigcup_{i \in I} U_i$ be an arbitrary union of sets whose complements are are countable.Then by De Morgan's law, $A=X \setminus (\bigcap_{i \in I}V_i)$, for some countable sets $V_i$. By the definition of intersection, $\bigcap_{i \in I}V_i \subseteq V_i$ for all $i \in I$. Since $V_i$ is countable so is any of its subsets.  Hence the complement of $A$ is countable. Changing geometry types from kml points Z to just points in QGIS How do I change geometry types from pointZ to point in QGIS from a kmz file? Can't run a shell script So I have this script:  #!/bin/bash # Flips the screen (hopefully)  syntax_error=0 orientation=0  current_orientation="$(xrandr -q --verbose | grep 'connected' | egrep -o  '\) (normal|left|inverted|right) \(' | egrep -o '(normal|left|inverted|right)')" case $current_orientation in         normal)                 current_orientation=0         ;;         left)                 current_orientation=1         ;;         inverted)                 current_orientation=2         ;;         right)                 current_orientation=3         ;; esac  if [ $current_orientation -eq 0 ]; then         orientation=2 fi  if [ $current_orientation -eq 2 ]; then         orientation=0 fi method=evdev  # LENOVO S10-3t CHANGE ==&gt; Hard Coded my device number to 11!!!!!!!!  device=11  swap=0 invert_x=0 invert_y=0 real_topx=0 real_topy=0 real_bottomx=4020 real_bottomy=4020  case $orientation in         0)                 swap=0                 invert_x=0                 invert_y=0                 topx=$real_topx                 topy=$real_topy                 bottomx=$real_bottomx                 bottomy=$real_bottomy         ;;         1)                 swap=1                 invert_x=1                 invert_y=0                 topx=$real_topx                 topy=$real_topy                 bottomx=$real_bottomy                 bottomy=$real_bottomx         ;;         2 )                 swap=0                 invert_x=1                 invert_y=1                 topx=$real_topx                 topy=$real_topy                 bottomx=$real_bottomx                 bottomy=$real_bottomy         ;;         3 )                 swap=1                 invert_x=0                 invert_y=1                 topx=$real_topx                 topy=$real_topy                 bottomx=$real_bottomy                 bottomy=$real_bottomx         ;; esac  if [ $method = "evdev" ]; then         xinput set-prop "$device" "Evdev Axes Swap" $swap         xinput set-prop "$device" "Evdev Axes Swap" $swap         xinput set-prop "$device" "Evdev Axis Inversion" $invert_x $invert_y         xinput set-prop "$device" "Evdev Axis Calibration" $topx $bottomx $topy $bottomy         if [ $orientation = 2 ]; then                            xrandr -o inverted         fi         if [ $orientation = 0 ]; then                 xrandr -o normal         fi fi  #   It's for flipping screen in my Lenovo S10-3t. I copied it from the netbook's wiki page, and added the #!/bin/bash at the top. The filename is flipscreen.sh. How can I make it work? Ever since I upgraded to 15.10, fdisk -l reports 16 ram disks (/dev/ram0 ... /dev/ram15). I'm a bit unsure what those are needed for. Is it safe to delete them? If not, how can I get rid of that fdisk output? Multiplicative inverse questions This is my first time posting on Math exchange. I have been self-teaching myself Mathematics and recently started learning some Algebra. I was posed the following questions, in which I would like to answer before I proceed, but having some trouble finding proper solutions. So the format will be question, and my answer.      What name do we give an element $a \in \mathbb{Z}_n$ that has a multiplicative inverse?   A modular multiplicative inverse of an integer $a$ is an integer $x$ such that $ax \cong 1 (\mod m)$. This means that the remainder after dividing $ax$ by integer $m$ is equal to $1$.      Give an example, for some $n \in \mathbb{N}$, of an element of $\mathbb{Z}_n$, that does not have a multiplicative inverse?   This question is throwing me off because - does the $n$ we speak of matter for both $n \in \mathbb{N}$ and $\mathbb{Z}_n$ ot solely $n$? My guess here would be $0$ because we cannot have an inverse of $0$.      Prove that multiplicative inverse are unique; an element $a \in \mathbb{Z}_n$ cannot have two multiplicative inverses.    Suppose that an element $a\in\mathbb{Z}_n$ has an inverse $a'$. Next, suppose that $a^*$ is also an inverse of $a$. Then, $a'$ is a solution to $a \cdot_n x=1$, and similarly $a^*$ has a solution to $a \cdot_n x=1$.   Lemma: Suppose $a'$ is multiplicative inverse of $a$ in $\mathbb{Z}_n$, then for any $b \in \mathbb{Z}_n$ the equation $a \cdot_n x=b$ has a unique solution, such that $x = a' \cdot_n b$.   By Lemma, equation $a \cdot_n x = 1$ has a unique solution, namely $x=a'=a^*$. Therefore, an element $a\in \mathbb{Z}_n$ cannot have two multiplicative inverses.    Thank you for the help. I would love any constructive feedback for these. If you can help me elaborate on some ideas, that would be really helpful also.  Thank you very much! Log and natural log Interpretation of interaction term I have a model: $$ \ln({\rm earnings}) = a+b_1{\rm female}+b_2{\rm white}+b_3{\rm female}\times{\rm white} $$ ${\rm female}$ and ${\rm white}$ are dummy variables.  I have interpreted $b_1$ and $b_2$:    $b_1$ = change in female earnings comparing to male given you are non white $b_2$ = change in white earnings comparing to non white given you are male   But I am unable to interpret the coefficient of the interaction term ($b_3$). Please help me with this.  Let me make it more clear what I need out of this regression $$ \ln({\rm earnings}) = 2.618656-.0899657{\rm female}+.382019{\rm white}-.2754126 {\rm female}\times{\rm white} $$ Now i know there is gender pay difference with b1, i also know there is race pay difference with b2. Now with b3 i need to know is their a gender pay gap for whites only. How can i figure that out with regression above and without test. Whenever light rays are entering a denser medium they bend towards the normal.  Why do rays choose the path towards the normal? Why cannot they choose the path away form the normal? Egyptian fractions with prime power denominators summing to 1? Inspired by        Can we solve the equation $$1=\frac{1}{a_1}+\frac{1}{a_2}+\frac{1}{a_3}+\cdots +\frac{1}{a_n}$$ where $a_1,a_2,a_3,\cdots ,a_n$ are distinct prime powers (primes are allowed) ?   I tried a modified greedy-algorithm with different starting vectors and brute force with $6$ entris with limit $200$, but did not find a representation. What is the physical significance of the imaginary part when plane waves are represented as $e^{i(kx-\omega t)}$? I've read that plane wave equations can be represented in various forms, like sine or cosine curves, etc. What is the part of the imaginary unit $i$ when plane waves are represented in the form $$f(x) = Ae^{i (kx - \omega t)},$$ using complex exponentials? Proving there are infinitely many pairs of square-full consecutive integers So the question goes like this :  A positive integer $n$ is called square-full if for every prime $p$, $p \, | \, n$ implies $p^2 \, | \, n$, i.e. every prime power factor of $n$ occurs at least at the second power. This is equivalent to saying that there is no prime $p$ such that $p \, \| \, n$.  Show that there are infinitely many consecutive pairs of square-full numbers, i.e. infinitely many $n$ such that $n$ and $n+1$ are square-full.  The context of the question highly suggests that this can be proved by induction and it is the solution that I am looking for. It is not a homework, just something that caught my attention because I couldn't find any natural answer to it... I hope I'm not missing something trivial!  I've tried assuming $n_1, n_2, \dots, n_k$ were the first $n_k$ integers such that $n_i$ and $n_i+1$ are square-full, and then generate some polynomial in those $2k$ integers to get a new couple $n_{k+1}$, $n_{k+1} + 1$ but after a few natural tries I got nothing good out of it. Any ideas? linebreak in description title