OSB3 (particle board) got wet during roofing - does it need to be replaced?
Is it OK for OSB3 boards to get wet during construction?
Another problem from quora.  What can be said about $v =\prod_{s=2}^{\infty} \zeta(s) $?  Wolfy says that $v \approx 2.294856591673313794183 $.  The Inverse Symbolic Calculator () finds nothing.  Here are the close values:  $2294856391585950 = (0064) sum((7/6*n^3-3*n^2+65/6*n-3)/(Fibo(n)+1),n=1..inf)\\ 2294856397653578 = (0001) GAM(5/6)*BesI(1,2)^{GAM(7/12)}\\ 2294856469349552 = (0006) 1/4357571\\ 2294856473388934 = (0324) 1/10*(10+14^{1/2}*10^{1/4})^{1/2}*10^{3/4}\\ 2294856488490537 = (0001) BesJ(0,1)^{GAM(1/3)/GAM(5/12)}\\ 2294856524215021 = (0314) sin(Pi*8/45)-sin(Pi*14/51)\\ 2294856591673313 \text{ would be here}\\ 2294856740350177 = (0011) sum((2*n^3-5*n^2+22*n-14)/(n!+2),n=1..inf)\\ 2294856991319600 = (0324) 23^{1/2}/(12^{3/4}-3^{2/3})^{1/2}\\ 2294857017919943 = (0001) Feig2*Li4(1/2)/GAM(5/6)\\ 2294857089879260 = (0248) F(11/26;27/50;1) \\ 2294857493303450 = (0404) Psi(1/21)+Psi(19/21)+Psi(13/14)\\ $  I tried using Euler's zeta product and partition sum, but this didn't seem to help. Here is what resulted:  $\zeta(s) =\dfrac1{\prod_p (1-p^{-s})} $.  $\begin{array}\\ v &amp;=\prod_{s=2}^{\infty} \zeta(s)\\ &amp;=\prod_{s=2}^{\infty} \dfrac1{\prod_p (1-p^{-s})}\\ &amp;=\prod_{s=2}^{\infty} \prod_p\dfrac1{ (1-p^{-s})}\\ &amp;= \prod_p\prod_{s=2}^{\infty}\dfrac1{ (1-p^{-s})}\\ \end{array} $  Euler's product identity states that $\prod_{n=1}^{\infty}\dfrac1{1-zx^n} =\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{x^nz^n}{\prod_{k=1}^n(1-x^k)} $. Putting $x=z=\dfrac1{p} $, $\prod_{n=2}^{\infty}\dfrac1{1-p^{-n}} =\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{p^{-2n}}{\prod_{k=1}^n(1-p^{-k})} $.  That's as far as I can go. Alice has a secp256k1 key pair that she used some time ago when she communicated with Bob. Bob can no longer user secp256k1 but he only uses ed25519 instead.  Is there a secure algorithm that Bob can use to derive an ed25519 pubkey from original Alice's secp256k1 pub key and also Alice can derive the matching ed25519 private key from her original secp256k1 private key such that they can communicate securely via ed25519 encrypted messages?  Thanks! It used to be that the new, super wide, touch friendly context menu style that Google introduced a few versions of Chrome ago could be turned off using the start up flag "--disable-new-menu-style".  As of Chrome 28, this is no longer the case, and as a desktop user it is very irritating to see menus that previously fit in the screen not to do so anymore — I don't think I can get used to it. Is there any way around it? If the flag is gone for good, can the style of the context menus be perhaps edited with custom css like the web inspector? I'm struggling with my lab report. I have a questionnaire which contains Likert responses (1-7) as well as questions that require only yes or no answers. I want to see if there is a correlation between higher scores on the likert scale and responses to the binary answers to the other questions.   Specifically - the likert response is about anxiety levels. The binary (yes/no) answer is about negative consequences due to alcohol use. I want to just run the one ordinal likert item with all the negative consequence responses to see if there is a relationship. Can anyone help me?     Thanks so much for the fast comments. It definitely assures me that Spearman's Rho can be used but my main problem is the fact that i am mixing binary and ordinal variables together in the one correlation matrix.  I have one ordinal variable (anxiety - 1-7 on likert scale) crossed with 13 dichotomous (0 or 1 representing yes or no) to answers ("have you ever been hospitalised due to your alcohol use?). I get statistically significant answers (&lt;.05 and &lt; .01 but the Correlation coefficients are tiny (i.e o.2) at best.   the hospitalisation is the DV an the anxiety levels the IV.   I just think i'm doing something wrong here. should i collapse the 13 binary variables in to one some how?   i can't see how SPSS will recognise the values between 1-7 when correlating with binary answers. i keep thinking it will just read that there is something in that box (ordinal) but not recognise the value (i.e 1-7) . but people keep saying that SPSS does in fact recognise this difference and account for it. I converted a raster image to vector in Illustrator CS6 using Image Trace then the Expand option, though when I save as an svg the image looks embossed. I suspect it's due to the layer background being white and the paths not lining up, but I'm unsure how to fix it or prove that theory without manually having to adjust every path.   This is how it looks in Illustrator before I export it:    The image looks like this when saved/exported with art optimized option: Mirror Modifier making ugly smoothing on mirrored faces The model is vivisected right down the middle along the z axis. The right leg is rendering funny and I assume if I can get that fixed everything else will fall into place. I tried flipping normals, changing shading types - can't think of anything else to do. Parenthetical pluralization of words ending in '-y' bash function cannot change the value of a local variable when called by $() The following code works differently depending on which way Parse_Short_Switches() is called.  After calling the function 'Parse_Short_Switches' by using result=$(Parse_Short_Switches), the value of $error_flag is NOT set to -1 as I would expect.  After calling the function 'Parse_Short_Switches' by simply using Parse_Short_Switches, the the value of $error_flag is set to -1 as I would expect.  Any help would be greatly appreciated.  Thanks  #!/bin/bash  function Parse_Short_Switches() { echo "error_flag inside of the function= $error_flag" 1&gt;&amp;2 error_flag="-1" echo "blah blah ..." }  # --- MAIN --- error_flag="999" echo "error_flag= $error_flag" #result=$(Parse_Short_Switches) Parse_Short_Switches echo "error_flag= $error_flag" I need to find all group homomorphisms of $S_n\to\mathbb{C}^*$ (for $n\ge2$), and also all group homomorphisms of $A_n\to\mathbb{C}^*$ (for $n\ge2$).  Someone on this site, two years ago, seems to have already asked the same question (). I understand what the questioner says there, but I don't understand it when he says:     Therefore there is exactly one $g:\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}\to\mathbb{C}^*$, so all elements of $a\in\mathbb{C}^*$ give us $\operatorname{ord}(a)\mid g[\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}]$, so $a$ can only be $-1$ or $1$. Now we know that $f:S_n\to\{-1,1\}$ &hellip;   What is he saying there? And how to go on from there? (I do not understand the answer given either &hellip;)  I hope that someone here can help me further. (And if I'm not allowed to ask this question because is has already been asked two years ago, please tell me what to do instead).  Thank you in advance! Is there a rhetorical term for remarks like "you're exactly what I've come to expect from..."? Is there a specific term for a statement that uses words such that their precise meaning conveys a subtext contrary to the colloquial meaning?  For example, the joke in Men in Black:     Gentlemen, congratulations. You're everything we've come to expect   from years of government training.   where the precise use of the words conveys a sarcastic meaning (ie that the candidates are inept because that's what he's come to expect from government training).  I was going to use "irony" to describe this but then realized this is basically the opposite of irony - the use of words to convey their literal intention, when a nonliteral intention was expected. How do you refer to a hyponym that is the same word as the hypernym? What word (or how do you phrase things) do you use when the ostensible word for the class is the same as the word for a subset of the class?  For example, in the United States, there are many brands of sugared, carbonated soft drink that one can buy: Coca-Cola (or Coke), Pepsi, RC Cola, Sprite, 7-Up, A&amp;W or Mug Root Beer, etc). The first two are kinds of 'coke' or 'cola' (but no one says 'cola').  , one asks for any type of such drink as 'coke'. How does one then ask for the particular kind of 'coke' that is 'Coke' (pronounced the same)? Does one reduplicate and say a 'Coke coke', does one repeat with emphasis (or without), does one use a different word like 'coca-cola' (co-cola), or what?  The (perceived) difficulty (surely those in the South are able to get the drink they want somehow) isn't limited to there. Where the drink is called 'soda', if you ask for a 'coke', you'll still sometimes have the choice among Coca-Cola, Pepsi, etc. "Can I have a Coke?" the response might be "Is Pepsi OK?". "Sure, Pepsi, Coke, whatever." You don't use 'cola', you just ask for the particular kind and hope the listener will help differentiate.   Given these multiple strategies for disambiguating, what do you do say to get a 'Coke' in the southern US? are there any other examples of a hypernym being the same as the hyponym, and so creating a disambiguation problem? Error sending edittext in java server. See code Find duplicate files Is it possible to find duplicate files on my disk which are bit to bit identical but have different file-names? What are the limitations on the Shape Water cantrip? I have been having a discussion regarding the Shape Water cantrip from the Elemental Evil Player's Companion. A friend and I are trying to come to an accurate view of how this spell actually functions.   Some example questions:   Must the targeted water be within a 5 foot cube area, or does it need to be of a volume not exceeding 125 cubic feet? If you shape water that is within a 5 foot cube, can the final shape you animate it to extend outside the cube? Can you cause the shaping to affect ice and snow, or only liquid water? Would you be able to carry a globe of water alongside you over distances?   Really, there are two parts:    What can be targeted by the spell? What are the limitations on the 'shape and animate' portion of the spell?   The answer I am looking for, if possible, would use the language of the spell, possibly with precedent from other game text, to clearly define the limitations of this cantrip. TV identification: Short-lived TV show about a time traveller with a super-computer disguised as a credit-card It might have only been a pilot or a made for TV movie, but I remember a male time traveller who was for some reason in 90s US from a semi-distant future. He had in his possession a super-computer disguised as a regular credit card, which could hack things and I think spoke to him in a female voice.   Note: Not Quantum Leap - the time traveller and "credit card computer" might be keywords that people would hit upon, but 'Ziggy' the computer in QL was non-speaking, operated by a hologram and did not resemble a credit card - this one had its own voice and was disguised as a CC. Highest quality website screenshot? I have created a  that i would like to add to my portfolio, but i'm having a hard time getting high quality screenshots of the full site. I tried to save the website as PDF, but that was full of errors, other online services cant recreate the images and so on. I've also just tried to take regular screenshots on the mac at put it all together, but it really lost a lot of quality when i scaled it down.  Any good ideas? :) An example of a regular function over an open set Fourier series identity I need to prove that $\dfrac{a \sin(bx)}{1 - 2a \cos(bx) + a^2} = \sum_{n=1}^\infty a^n \sin(nbx)$ where $|a| &lt; 1$.  It seems that this can be proved by using Euler's formula identities for $\cos(bx)$ and $\sin(bx)$ and substituting $z = e^{ibx}$. From that, I get $$ \dfrac{a \sin(bx)}{1 - 2a \cos(bx) + a^2} = \dfrac{a (z - 1/z)}{2i(1 - a(z + 1/z) + a^2)}$$ $$= \dfrac{a (z^2 -1)}{2i(z - a(z^2 +1) + za^2)}$$ $$= \dfrac{a (z^2 -1)}{-2ai(z^2 - z(1-a^2)/a + 1)}$$  I don't understand what I am supposed to do next. Suppose we have a natural number $n \ge 0$.  Given natural numbers $\alpha_1,\ldots,\alpha_k$ such that   $k\le n$ $\sum_i \alpha_i = n$   what is the maximum value that $\Pi_i \alpha_i$ can take?  I'm quite sure that there is a theorem telling me the result, but I cannot find it. For sure an upper bound is $n^k$ but I'm searching for a real upper bound. I'm pretty sure that upper the bound should be $n^2$, but I don't know I could prove it. I was watching the film A Game of Shadows starring Robert Downey Junior and Jude Law when this line came up, "...neither you nor I is in control..." (I can’t remember the exact words that ended the phrase; if anyone can supply them, it would be much appreciated.)   It immediately struck me as being odd. When I mentioned this to my boyfriend; an English native speaker, with a PhD in something sciency, he told me it was correct. When I asked why, he couldn't explain but put forward the following sentence as an example. "Neither of us is in control..." However, I disagreed with the wording and said the sentence should have been: "Neither one of us is in control..." The genderless third person, one, is singular, and hence, so too the verb that follows. And we say, "one is" NOT "one are".      "Neither you nor I are in control over ..."    I believe the above sounds better, but it is more logical to say:     "Neither you nor I am in control..."    because the verb agrees with the subject closest to it; however, I'm not sure if I have ever read or heard this solution. So, I tried inverting the subject and auxiliary verb order and the resulting phrase was:    "Neither you nor am I in control..."    which sounds very formal, pompous, and ... odd. Am I imagining things?  The two subjects you and I are two separate individuals who are not joined together, I agree the verb should be in the singular; but why should we use "is"? We don't say, "you is" or "I is". Before anyone rushes off to claim my question is a duplicate of a previous Stackexchange one:  I want to explain why the answer to that question fails to explain why my boyfriend and the film makers consider the  sentence below correct:     Neither you nor I is in control...   As I see it, Michael and Albert are two separate individuals, it therefore stands to reason that the verb should be singular, and "is" agrees with the subject. If I rephrase the neither and nor construction, I would get:          Michael is not correct but neither is Albert   OR          Michael is not correct and Albert isn't either.      Which have the same meaning, (either being the negative equivalent of neither) the sentences are grammatical which leads me to conclude that the verb must be singular and hence         Neither Michael nor Albert is correct      However, when I rephrase the "neither you nor I" sentence following the same procedure I have to say this:        You are not in control but neither am I (‘I am’ is ungrammatical)   OR              You are not in control and I’m not either.      which leads me to surmise that the sentence below must be grammatically correct        Neither you nor I am in control"      So, why does my boyfriend insist that the sentence ought to be:     Neither you nor I is in control   Which one of us is right and why?