Let $V$ be a finite dimensional vector space over $R$, then is it   possible to write $V$ as union of finitely many proper subspaces?   I am not sure but suppose if we have $B$ as an ordered basis for our vector space $V$, then we may break $B$ into $B_1$ and $B_2$ such that $B1\cap B2=\phi$ and $B1\cup B2=B$  So, isn't it true that $V=L(B1) \cup L(B2)$?  Where $L(B1)$ is linear span of $B1$
If $U_1$, $U_2,\ldots,U_n$ are proper subspaces of a vector space $V$ over a field $F$, and $|F|\gt n-1$, why is $V$ not equal to the union of the subspaces $U_1$, $U_2,\ldots,U_n$?
Why Changing Permissions For Some Systems Files is Not Allowed? An excerpt from Introduction to Analytic Number Theory by Tom M. Apostol.      I have three main concerns regarding this proof:    What is the abscissa of convergence for $\frac{1}{F(s)}$ - why can we take the product of the two series. I only know this is true if the two series are absolutely convergent.  Why can we do term by term integration? I believe its suffices to show that the series converges locally uniformly - BUT is this true?  How does the proof show that $G(s)$ converges uniformly? Why Not Use Public Member Functions Is there anyway to restore the Blender default Cloth settings? Or is there anyway to find what the default settings are?  I didn't realize at the time that by changing the values I was overriding the default values.  Using Blender v2.76. Implement ```-style (fenced) Markdown code blocks Currently, Stack Exchange’s Markdown parser only allows four-space indents to represent code blocks:      // some code     // another line of code    and other Markdown implementations allow for an alternative syntax, that doesn’t require indenting each code line:  ``` // some code // another line of code ```   This is much more convenient to type out. It would be super useful if Stack Exchange could support this syntax.    By extension, this syntax also allow you to specify the source language right after the opening ```:  ```js // some code // another line of code ```   …which would then enable syntax highlighting for that specific language. Although it’s interesting metadata, I don’t think this feature is needed on Stack Overflow, as the syntax highlighting library works pretty well for various languages.  So, even if you would allow this syntax but ignore the ```language, this would greatly improve my productivity on Stack Exchange.  What do you think?  The moderators are currently collecting feedback regarding this feature, so please post a comment with your thoughts. Good idea? Bad idea? Don’t really care? What do you think are the benefits/drawbacks? Experiences? Let them know! Thanks! Add an unnmbered section to the table of Contents in Lyx How do you select elements based on their style? Using jQuery, how would you find elements which have a particular style (eg: float: left), regardless of whether it's an inline style or one defined in a CSS file? Understanding Euclid's proof that the number of primes is infinite. In Euclid's proof, if $p_1, p_2, \dots, p_n$ are the only primes then $p_1 \times p_2 \times \dots \times p_n + 1$ is not divisible by any of $p_1, p_2, \dots, p_n$ (because of some algebraic facts), which makes another prime and is a contradiction.   The proof makes sense logically, and I tried some numerical examples to "feel" the proof better but...  $2 \times 3 \times 5\times 7\times 11\times 13+1$ is not a prime! $2 \times 3 \times 5\times 7\times 11\times 13 \times 17+1$ is also not prime! Why is the general case proof is not working for these examples? What is the effect of the number of cross-type focus points on sharp focus? How are embedded quotations used? How would embedded quotations be used when quoting from passages/sources within an essay? What would be the difference between normal quotations and embedded quotations? Show that $(l_1)^* \cong l_{\infty}$ Suppose $f$ and $g$ are entire functions with $|f(z)|\leq|g(z)|$ for all $z$.  How can we show that $f=cg$ for some complex constant $c$?  Thanks for any help :) Did Harry Potter lose Voldemort's powers when he lost his connection to Voldemort? Harry noted to Dumbledore that he had a number of things in common with Voldemort. And it was later revealed that some of Voldemort's power was transferred to Harry when Voldemort tried to kill him. So, what powers did Harry get from Voldemort (i.e. Parseltongue and others) and did they all leave him when he stopped being a horcrux?    Update In the Chamber of Secrets Dumbledore states that Harry has many qualities that Salazar Slytherin values in his hand picked students. Parseltongue - resourcefulness - determination - a certain disregard for rules.    So, does anyone know what specific powers Harry got from Voldemort and is there anyway to tell if he lost anything else besides Parseltongue? So I was in the middle of making a ball-shaped smoke, but the volumetric effect didn't work following the basic shape. It remains cube in Eevee Blender 2.8; while in Cycle it works, but in Cycle it takes thousands of years for Render. How to write “ä” and other umlauts and accented letters in bibliography? How to write in bibliography (package natbib) letter "a" with two dots above? Specially, I mean the word Birkhäuser.  Is there a general rule or way how to write such umlauts or other accented letters in bibliographies? When does reflow happen in a DOM environment? What kinds of activities will trigger reflow of web page with DOM?  It seems there are different points of view. According to ,  it happens   When you add or remove a DOM node. When you apply a style dynamically (such as element.style.width="10px"). When you retrieve a measurement that must be calculated, such as accessing offsetWidth, clientHeight, or any computed CSS value (via getComputedStyle() in DOM-compliant browsers or currentStyle in IE).   However, according to , taking measurement triggers reflow only when there is already reflow action queued.  Does anybody have any more ideas? As I show below, typical alien depictions include an elongated, pale face, two dark elliptical eyes, and a small mouth.  Who first used this design for an alien?  Where does this design come from? How do I find duplicate values in a table in Oracle? Energy conservation and interference I have a problem with energy conservation in case of interfering waves.  Imagine two harmonic waves with amplitudes $A$. They both carry energy that is proportional to $A^2$, so the total energy is proportional to $2A^2$. When they interfere, the amplitude raises to $2A$, so energy is now proportional to $4A^2$ and bigger than before.  The equivalent question is what happens to the energy with the superposition of two waves that interfere destructively.  Also, if someone could comment on the statement about this problem in my physics book (Bykow, Butikow, Kondratiew):      The sources of the waves work with increased power during the interference because they feel the wave from the other source. $\sqrt{1-x^2}$ is not a rational function If $k$ is a field in which $1 + 1 \neq 0$, prove that $\sqrt{1-x^2}$ is not a rational function. Hint. Mimic the classical proof that $\sqrt{2}$ is irrational   It seems rather odd to discuss the square root function in the context of an arbitrary field, but here goes nothing!  Proof:   Suppose that $\sqrt{1-x^2}$ is a rational function in $k(x)$. Then there exist polynomials $p(x)$ and $q(x) \neq 0$ that are relatively prime with $\sqrt{1-x^2} = \frac{p(x)}{q(x)}$; clearly we may take $p(x) \neq 0$. Then $1-x^2 = \frac{p(x)^2}{q(x)^2}$ or $q(x)^2(1-x^2) = p(x)^2$, which says $q^2 | p^2$, and since $q | q^2$, we can infer $q | p^2$. Moreover, since $p|p^2$ and $(p,q)=1$, then $pq|p^2$ or $q|p$, which contradicts the fact that the polynomials are relatively prime. Hence $\sqrt{1-x^2}$ cannot be a rational function.    How does this sound? Aside from the problem of discussing $\sqrt{~~}$ in the context of an arbitrary field, I am worried about not using the fact that $1+1 \neq 0$, at least not explicitly. Where exactly is this assumed used, if at all?  EDIT:  Suppose that $q(x) =1$, and let $f(x) = a_n x^n + ... a_1 x + a_0$. Then $1-x^2 = f(x)^2$. If $x=0$, $1 = a^2_0$ and therefore $a_0$ must be a unit. Letting $x=1$ we get $0 = (a_n + ... + a_1 + a_0)^2$; and letting $x=-1$ we get $0 = (-a_n - ... - a_1  + a_0)^2$. Since we are working in a field, there can be no nonzero nilpotent which means that $a_n + ... + a_1 + a_0$ and $-a_n - ... - a_1  + a_0$ are both zero. Adding the two equations together yields $2a_0 = 0$, and since $1+1 \neq 0$, $a_0 = 0$ which contradicts the fact that $a_0$ is a unit.   How does this sound?  Another attemtpt:  If $f(x)^2 = 1-x^2$, then $2 = \deg(f^2) = 2 \deg (f)$ implies $\deg(f) = 1$. Yet if $x=-1$, we get $f(-1)^2 = 1 - 1 = 0$ and therefore $f(-1)=0$ since there are no nonzero nilpotent elements in a field; similarly, $f(1)=0$. Since $1+1 \neq 0$, $f$ has two distinct roots in $k$ yet is only a $1$-st degree polynomial, a contradiction.