Is there any command i should use to do this or am i just out of luck?  have looked at Jupiter but it seems to be obsolete. Is there another program i could install? If so please tell me the name of it...   Also, I am trying to do this so I can game on my laptop again. I am trying to play Borderlands The Pre Sequel.  Not sure if that information will help, but I will add it just in case.   Jupiter is not supported I have no idea what i am doing.   (What do I have to do to submit this question!?!)
I'm trying to install the Jupiter power settings app but, I read it is no longer compatible with the new kernel. Is there a similar program or a way to manage the power settings on 13.04?
Proof on showing if F(x,y,z)=0 then product of partial derivatives (evaluated at an assigned coordinate) is -1 The task is as follows:     Given: $$F(x,y,z) = 0$$    Goal:  Show    $\frac{\partial  z}{\partial y}|_x \frac{\partial  y}{\partial x}|_z \frac{\partial x}{\partial z} |_y = -1$   Here is my work so far:  (1) Differentiate with respect to y, I get:  $0 + F_2 + F_3  \frac{\partial z}{\partial y} = 0$  So $ F_3  \frac{\partial z}{\partial y} = - F_2$  (2) Differentiate with respect to x, I get:  $F_1 + F_2 \frac{\partial y}{\partial x}  + 0 = 0$  So $ F_2  \frac{\partial y}{\partial x} = - F_1$  (3) Differentiate with respect to z, I get:  $F_1  \frac{\partial x}{\partial z}    + 0  + F_3 = 0$  So $ F_1  \frac{\partial x}{\partial z} = - F_3$  (4) After some manipulations with the $F_i$, I get to the conclusion that $\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}* \frac{\partial y}{\partial x} * \frac{\partial x}{\partial z}  = -1$, so when evaluated with x, z, y respectively, conclusion is still true  My questions are:  (1) Is my proof correct?  (2) For example, when I differentiate with respect to y, I "let" $F_1$ be 0 and find partials for other coordinates.    I had a hard time trying to explain to my friend on the reason(s) why I can do such "let be 0" thing.  Although I think if I can't do that, then there is no way that I can reach the conclusion, but I somehow feel confused about the fact too.  Since my book is doing it that way, my understanding is that I can do such "let be 0" thing based on the independece of x with respect to y, when I differentiate with respect to y.  But is my thought ok?  Would someone please help me on this question? Thank you very much ^_^ Is there a max array length limit in C++? Is there a max length for an array in C++?  Is it a C++ limit or does it depend on my machine? Is it tweakable? Does it depend on the type the array is made of?  Can I break that limit somehow or do I have to search for a better way of storing information? And what should be the simplest way?  What I have to do is storing long long int on an array, I'm working in a Linux environment. My question is: what do I have to do if I need to store an array of N long long integers with N > 10 digits?  I need this because I'm writing some cryptographic algorithm (as for example the p-Pollard) for school, and hit this wall of integers and length of arrays representation. PHP: running scheduled jobs (cron jobs) Hair Paricle System not rendering properly on plane How can one prove that $\pi^4 + \pi^5 < e^6$? Render Glass like materials with Alpha Channel to composite in external app Hope you can help me with some issues I've been dealing these days.  As I'm rendering products, most of the time I need to render some transparent materials in order to do a post-pro in Photoshop, change the backgrounds, superpose images, etc.  I've been looking for an answer but yet I've couldn't get a solution for this problem.  I need to render materials with transparency and no background in Cycles.  I've found that there are two ways to do this:   Render with transparency in the materials.  Render and get two renders, the original and another one only with the alpha channel to edit in Photoshop.   For the first option, I've achieved to render a glass-like material, as PET plastic using this node tree:    For the second option, I haven't found a way to get the alpha channel in cycles that includes the object with transparency and, if possible, the shadows in the background| but without the background. Does this email mean that I have been granted the visa? I received the following email this morning. Does it mean that my visa has been granted?  UK Visas &amp; Immigration has now assessed your UK visa application and made a decision. Your documents and the decision will be sent back to either the UK Visa Application Centre where you applied, where we will contact you by email over the next few days to collect them, or if you are using the courier return service, will be sent directly back to the address provided. Please note that TLScontact does not know the outcome of the assessment and has played no role in the decision-making process. Kind regards, TLScontact UK VIsas &amp; Immigration Redirect STDERR and STDOUT to different variables without temporary files func() {     echo 'hello'     echo 'This is an error' &gt;&amp;2 }  a=$(func) b=???   I'd like to redirect the stderr to b variable without creating a temporary file.   echo $b  # output should be: "This is an error"   The solution that works but with a temporary file:  touch temp.txt exec 3&lt; temp.txt a=$(func 2&gt; temp.txt); cat &lt;&amp;3 rm temp.txt   So the question is, how do I redirect the stderr of the  function func to the variable b without the need of a temporary file? There is a requirement in our project where they want to evaluate if it is possible to downgrade SQL Server from Enterprise to Standard edition and if a server can be decommissioned.  How can I identify which servers are suitable for downgrade? Do "Best by: XX-XX-XX" foods have an expiration date? How long will foods that have "Best by: XX-XX-XX" on the product last past that date?  I have tried looking online, and all I can find is anecdotal evidence, which isn't very assuring for me since there seems to be no specific "x food will expire y weeks after its best by date".  Is there a rule of thumb or some guide out there that can tell me how long a "best by" food will last? Or is it safe to assume that they never expire, since it's not actually labelled on the product? Is it possible to identify what the parent program/app is from a running process? In a question on "along" vs "alongside", I have seen this question and the correct answer on the web site makes me confused.      The question is: I enjoyed my walk _________________ the river.  a) along b) alongside  I selected "...along the river" as the correct answer, but on the web site it is shown as wrong and the correct answer is "alongside".  How can that be? I still do not agree, because I have studied the difference between the two. "along" is just the right preposition for thin and long places like road, path, street, beach etc".   So, why would the correct answer be "alongside" which simply means "next to"? Do you not think "along" seems to be better fitting?  Regards,  Note: I would be more than gratefull, if somebody show it to me in a video, like "a walk along the river" and "a walk alongside the river". Maybe I can understand the how "a walk along the river" and "a walk alongside the river" would take place. I don't know if this is a well-known fact, but I have observed that every number, no matter how large, that is equally divided by $9$, will equal $9$ if you add all the numbers it is made from until there is $1$ digit. A quick example of what I mean:  $9*99 = 891$ $8+9+1 = 18$ $1+8 = 9$  This works even with really long numbers like $4376331$ Why is that? This doesn't work with any other number. Similarly for $11$ and alternating digits sums. Show:$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\sqrt[n]{n!}}{n}= \frac{1}{e}$$  So I can expand the numerator by geometric mean. Letting $C_{n}=\left(\ln(a_{1})+...+\ln(a_{n})\right)/n$. Let the numerator be called $a_{n}$ and the denominator be $b_{n}$ Is there a way to use this statement so that I could force the original sequence into the form of $1/\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n$ Is it possible to recover Classical Mechanics from Schrödinger's equation? Let me explain in details. Let $\Psi=\Psi(x,t)$ be the wave function of a particle moving in a unidimensional space. Is there a way of writing $\Psi(x,t)$ so that $|\Psi(x,t)|^2$ represents the probability density of finding a particle in classical mechanics (using a Dirac delta function, perhaps)? Edit:  I foolishly changed my example right before posting this. The following is what I meant to ask.  On the wikipedia page below, it says "a non-zero non-unit element in an integral domain is said to be irreducible if it is not a product of two non-units."   Then, on the wikipedia page below, it says "an irreducible polynomial is, roughly speaking, a non-constant polynomial that cannot be factored into the product of two non-constant polynomials."   The page then gives an example of a polynomial that is irreducible "over the rationals" (I assume it is implied that "the integers" is referring to the ring of polynomials over the field of rationals, right?)  $p(x) = x^2 + 2 = (x+\sqrt{2})(x-\sqrt{2})$  On the Wofram page below, it says "the irreducible polynomials are examples of irreducible elements."   If irreducible polynomials are a subset of irreducible elements, how is $x+\sqrt{2}$ a unit?  What can it be multiplied by to equal the multiplicative identity?  I think I have it right this time (sorry. long day)  ====================================================================  The following is the original post (for those who already responded and those looking at the corresponding responses)  On the wikipedia page below, it says "a non-zero non-unit element in an integral domain is said to be irreducible if it is not a product of two non-units."   Then, on the wikipedia page below, it says "an irreducible polynomial is, roughly speaking, a non-constant polynomial that cannot be factored into the product of two non-constant polynomials."   The page then gives an example of a polynomial that is reducible "over the integers" (I assume it is implied that "the integers" is referring to some sort of ring, right? due to the claim below)  $p(x) = x^2 + 4x + 4 = (x+2)(x+2)$  On the Wofram page below, it says "the irreducible polynomials are examples of irreducible elements."   If irreducible polynomials are a subset of irreducible elements, how is $x+2$ a unit?  What can it be multiplied by to equal the multiplicative identity? I have a bash script that makes a cURL request and writes the output to a file called resp.txt.  I need to create an exclusive lock so that I can write to that file and not worry about multiple users running the script and editing the text file at the same time. Here is the code that I expect to lock the file, perform the request, and write to the text file: ( flock -e 200 curl 'someurl' -H 'someHeader' &gt; resp.txt ) 200&gt;/home/user/ITS/resp.txt  Is this the correct way to go about this?  My actual script is a bit longer than this, but it seems to break when I add the flock syntax to the bash script. If someone could explain how these file descriptors work and let me know if I am locking the file correctly that would be awesome! Joined pipelines Considering a routine such as this one:  alpha() { echo a b c |tr ' ' '\n'; }   which outputs a stream, I would like to take the output stream, transform it, and paste it with the original output stream.  If I take use upcasing as a sample transformation, I can achieve what I want with:  $ mkfifo p1 p2 $ alpha | tee p1 &gt;( tr a-z A-Z &gt; p2) &gt;/dev/null &amp; $ paste p1 p2 a       A b       B c       C   My question is, is there a better way to do this, preferably one not involving named pipes? Is time dilation an illusion? Which graphics formats can be included in documents processed by latex or pdflatex? There several types of graphics files. In no particular order .jpeg .eps .pdf .png .tif .jif (and no doubt others). Some work with latex, dvips and some work with pdflatex. How am I supposed to know which?  Just to confuse matters, metapost produces .eps but I can use these with pdflatex as long as I put in a four line incantation.  Can anyone explain this?