Including me, I have noticed it many times, people tends to delete complete password field even if they miss single character.   Anyone know why users are tend to behave in such a way? Can we do something to change this sort of user experience?   Thanks in advance.
We login to applications almost every day. The password is stored in our fingers, as an automated process (if they have used it long enough). When users realize they have entered a wrong character (before hitting login-button) they erase the whole password, and retype the entire password – instead of just the last wrong character. Question is why?         &ndash; Wireframes created with
What is the REST endpoint URL to get list of site collections? If I go to SharePoint 2013 site, click on Admin -> SharePoint, you will see a list of site collections (the link is https://somename-admin.sharepoint.com/_layouts/15/online/SiteCollections.aspx)  What is the REST endpoint URL to get this list of site collections ?  I was trying _api/search/query?querytext='contentclass:sts_site' or _api/search/query?querytext='contentclass:sts_web', but it doesn't give the whole list... What is the relation between computational security and provable security? I read the book "Introduction modern cryptography". It gives the notion of computational security of private-key encryption at first which comes from perfect security and statistical security.     Let $(E,D)$ be an encryption scheme that uses $n$-bits keys to encrypt $l(n)$-length messages. $(E,D)$ is computationally secure if    $$E_{U_{n}}(x_{0}) \approx E_{U_{n}}(x_1)$$   And then it introduces the secure game (e.g. CPA, CCA)? I think it is a part of provable security.  "Unconditional security" (or "information-theoretic security" or "perfectly secrecy") and "computational security" are two opposite classes of security. But I do not think "computational security" and "provable security" are two independent classes of security. I know that computational security emphasizes the power of attacker is bounded (polynomial-time algorithm). And the provable emphasizes the mathematical assumptions or cryptography primitives. But it also related to the computational power. Of all the people we know, in the books, who were sent to Azkaban, the majority are Death Eaters (Dolohov, Lucius, Crouch Jr, Bellatrix and so on) or suspected to be involved with them (Sirius, Stan, et cetera). They were imprisoned for using the Unforgivable Curses, as well as for being accomplices of a seriously dark wizard. What other crimes are Azkaban-worthy, in normal circumstances? I'm looking for anything that's been stated in the books, or on Pottermore (basically, anything 'canon'), or anything one can conclude from information in the books. I think smaller crimes are punished by imposing a fine, but what about bigger ones? Surely murder and torture (i.e. crimes against humanity) aren't the only ones punishable by imprisonment? That certainly isn't the case in contemporary Muggle society. My thoughts Off the top of my head, I can name these crimes:  Being an unregistered Animagus1 That was what Hermione threatened Skeeter with.  Trespass and robbery2 That's how Sturgis Podmore was imprisoned.   Notes  Several of the arrests in the Half-Blood Prince and the Deathly Hallows were made by an authoritarian (if that's the right word on this case) government, in the time of war. They do not count as normal.  I don't mean that there should be an answer to this question, I was wondering if it was ever addressed in the books. I certainly don't expect a list of all people sent to Azkaban, and the reasons for doing so!     1 &quot;Well, yes,&quot; said Hermione calmly, taking a sip of her drink. &quot;Otherwise, as you very well know, I will inform the authorities that you are an unregistered Animagus. Of course, the Prophet might give you rather a lot for an insider's account of life in Azkaban.&quot;  The Beetle at Bay, Harry Potter and the Order of the Phoenix     2 Sturgis Podmore, 38, of number two, ... charged with trespass and robbery ... sentenced to six months in Azkaban.  Percy and Padfoot, Harry Potter and the Order of the Phoenix Aside from the repetitive appearance of the black cat, I can't remember seeing any living animals, either inside the Matrix simulation or in Zion.  How come? Is there an in-universe explanation? $X$,$Y$,$Z$ mutually independent implies $X+Y$ independent of $Z$ Supposing $X$, $Y$ and $Z$ and mutually independent real random variables, how can we prove that $X+Y$ and $Z$ are independent from the definition? If not from the definition, using $\sigma$-algebras?  I know that if $X$ and $Y$ are not independent this doesn't work so I know I have to make use of their independence in my proof but I can't figure out how. And it means that if I write the following, I'm making a mistake, and I can't find it:  $$\mathbb{P}(X+Y \leq k,Z \leq l)=\int_{\mathbb{R}} \mathbb{P}(X=x,Y \leq k-x, Z \leq l) dx=\int_{\mathbb{R}} \mathbb{P}(X=x,Y \leq k-x) \mathbb{P}(Z \leq l) dx = \mathbb{P}(Z \leq l)\int_{\mathbb{R}} \mathbb{P}(X=x,Y \leq k-x)dx= \mathbb{P}(Z \leq l) \mathbb{P}(X+Y \leq k) $$  PS: I have seen the proof here but it much more advanced stuff, kind of a sledgehammer... I am having trouble understanding what defines Entailment operator. On Mathoverflow I posted this question on what I perceive to be .  Consider: :     P therefore Q  P            Therefore, Q   My question is could we have arbitrarily defined it such as:     P therefore Q  P            Therefore, P   However, if an advanced civilization receives information in the form of following nested structures/containers or packets, how will they interpret Modus Ponens if in an alien land Modus Ponens is not defined?    Therefore, it raises the validity of MP. How do we define the implication or entailment operator? Because if we use an argument that relies on implication or entailment operator ipso facto, then it is trivial that logic is circular.  Is there a flaw in my rationale? I'm an idiot, I was writing an image to a USB drive using dd when instead of typing /dev/sdb I typed /dev/sdd and wrote the 135mb image to my 750gb External Hardrive full of files. Is there ANY possibility of recovering the files or did dd completely zero out the drive? Please help, as this is one of the lowest points of my life EVER.  dd finished writing the 135mb image in 5 seconds, so I didn't have a chance to stop it. By the time I knew what happened to was too late. The command was as follows:   sudo dd if=generic.img of=/dev/sdd bs=1M   EDIT2: The External Harddrive's filesystem was FAT32(I've had the drive for awhile and FAT32 was the most Universal FS at the time). I also have a 2TB drive I just got which I was planning on moving most of the files to from the 750gb, If needed I can use it to transfer the Recovered files to. This is a follow-up to .  Suppose you want to denote vectors by upright bold letters; then \mathbf{u} works fine, except that if it's a Greek letter you have to use \boldsymbol{\omega} instead.  Question: Is it possible to define a generic vector command in LaTeX which automatically chooses between \mathbf and \boldsymbol, so that one can write just \vect{u} and \vect{\omega} without having to treat the Greek symbols specially by hand?  (Just to be clear: \newcommand{\vect}[1]{\boldsymbol{#1}} is no good in this situation, since \boldsymbol{u} gives bold italic instead of roman.) I would like to say something like     The boy, Adam's, favorite toy was a bike.   What is the proper way to say this? Likelihood Ratio Test for Exponential Distribution with a Limited Parameter Space How do I format a backslash as code with backticks in comments? I'm trying to write a single backslash in a comment as code formatted by backtick. Like this:  `\`   but it escapes the backtick and doesn't close the "inline code block".  I've read  but couldn't figure out.  How do I format a single backslash in comment as code? Comparing and contrasting, p-values, significance levels and type I error I was wondering if anybody could give a concise rundown as to the definitions and uses of p-values, significance level and type I error.  I understand that p-values are defined as "the probability of obtaining a test statistic at least as extreme as the one we actually observed", while a significance level is just an arbitrary cutoff value to gauge if the p-value is significant or not. Type I error is the error of rejected a null hypothesis that was true. However, I am unsure regarding the difference between significance level and the type I error, are they not the same concept?  For example, assume a very simple experiment where I flip a coin 1000 times and count the number of times it lands on 'heads'. My null hypothesis, H0, is that heads = 500 (unbiased coin). I then set my significance level at alpha = 0.05.  I flip the coin 1000 times and then I calculate the p-value, if the p-value is > 0.05 then I fail to reject the null hypothesis and if the p-value is &lt; 0.05 then I reject the null hypothesis.  Now if I did this experiment repeatedly, each time calculating the p-value and either rejecting or failing to reject the null hypothesis and keeping a count of how many I rejected/failed to reject, then I would end up rejecting 5% of null hypotheses which were in actuality true, is that correct? This is the definition of type I error. Therefore, the significance level in Fisher significance testing is essentially the type I error from Neyman-Pearson hypothesis testing if you performed repeated experiments.  Now as for p-values, if I had gotten a p-value of 0.06 from my last experiment and I did multiple experiments and counted all the ones that I got a p-value from 0 to 0.06, then would I also not have a 6% chance of rejecting a true null hypothesis? Center figure that is wider than \textwidth MySQL Access denied for user 'root'@'localhost' In my server, everytime I try to access MySQL I get the error:        Access denied for user 'root'@'localhost' (using password: NO)   when I try mysqladmin -u root -p password I get        Access denied for user 'root'@'localhost' (using password: YES)   How can I access MySQL in my Ubuntu server 12.04? How to redirect apache /var/www to the home directory and access all the directories and files in my home directory? I have installed Apache(LAMP) web server on my ubuntu machine and I want to do the above mentioned thing.I have tried creating symbolic links in the /var/www directory but it only shows files but not directories inside the directory linked.I want to redirect /var/www to my home folder so that I can access all the files and directories contained therein.Please help me. Let $f$ be an entire function such that $\mid f(z) \mid \leq A \mid z \mid$ for all $z$, where $A$ is a fixed number. Show that $f(z)=a_1z$, where $a_1$ is a complex constant. Is the wave function of a particle re-created after a measurement stops? First time I've used cycles rendering engine.  I'm using a movie clip as the background in short animation. Selected RBGA under Property Tab, and Transparent under Film Tab.  It looks good and individual frames in OpenGL active viewport render, and looks fine.  When I try to get it to spit out PNG files of the finished animation the objects render out fine, except no movie clip background as Blender Render engine did when using Paper Sky setting.  Operator error, or am I trying to do something Cycles won't do?  Haven't found an answer in my searches so far.  Can anyone point me in the right direction please.   Addition:  I think I found my problem after a couple more hours of research.  Post should read "operator ignorance" instead of operator error.  Too tired to try the solution tonight, everything looks better in the morning. Thanks anyway.  Sorry, I just saw your posts.  Really tired.  Much appreciation. Why can I only change my Stack Overflow name once every 30 days? I have a  on Stack Overflow. I recently decided to change the name on my profile. I did this, but I made a spelling mistake! I wrote "Kryton" instead of "Kryten"! When I tried to fix this, a message came back saying that I can only change my profile name every 30 days. Why? Is there any way I can fix my profile name? Number theory lemma - $x^2 \equiv 1 \pmod p$ implies $x\equiv\pm 1\pmod p$