I accidentally let the controller fall from my hand and now the L1 button isn't working. (which is terrible, because I love FIFA).  What can I do? is it possible to fix?
The X button stopped working on one of my PS3 controllers. It's hardly through abuse, the controller isn't a year old and I don't play a lot.  The button doesn't stick, it presses like the others, only the system isn't aware that I'm using it. I tried resetting it with the tiny reset button in the back, to no avail.  What can I do?
I often find that I can zoom in to a point, but then cannot zoom any more, even when there is a lot of room to zoom to the meshes on the scene.   This is particularly annoying in the following scenario:  I often land up left clicking on the scene and the 3D cursor shifts there. I use Shift+C to shift the 3D cursor back to the origin. However, this also centers the view on the cursor and shifts the view to show all objects, and sometimes this zooms things way out &ndash; at this point, if I try to zoom in, I can zoom in to a point (using the pinch/zoom on trackpad), but then it stops zooming in.   How do I zoom in after that? Is there anything else I am doing wrong in this case? I have an Asus R500VD laptop which came with the preinstalled Windows 8. As actually this computer will be used by my grandmother (and she's only using win 7) I'd like to downgrade it.  Thanks to other thread here, I was able to successfully boot computer from Windows 7 USB stick, but unfortunately during install I got a message:  A required CD/DVD drive device driver is missing. (...)   and I can't get pass it... This is what I've done:   I've downloaded all drivers from Asus Website (), unzip and copied to visible location for windows 7 installation - I've picked each one of them, none has helped. As I belive it's some kind of problem with SATA/RAID/AHCI drivers I went to Intel site and downloaded various "Intel Rapid Storage Technology" drivers - a lot of them were recognized by win7, but none of them helped.   Does anyone have an idea what can I do next? Any help would be really appreciated. I'm stuck with this integral  $\int\frac {\cos^4x}{\sin^3x} dx$    which I rewrote as  $\int \csc^3x \cos^4xdx$  then after using the half angle formula twice for $\cos^4x$ I got this  $\frac 14\int \csc^3x (1+\cos(2x))(1+\cos(2x))dx$   then after solving those products I got these integrals  $\frac 14 \{\int \csc^3xdx+2\int \csc^3x \cos(2x)dx + \int \csc^3x \cos^2(2x)dx\}$  I do know how to solve the $\int \csc^3xdx$ one but I'm totally lost on the other ones, any tips/help/advice would be highly appreciated! thanks in advance guys! How to completely uninstall and remove QGIS 2.8.1 on Windows Vista? I want to uninstall and completely remove QGIS installation from my computer(windows vista). I have uninstalled it and when i try to reinstall it says it is already installed on the system. Where does the word "dog" come from? $f(x)=x/1$ is not injective? The $ l^{\infty} $-norm is equal to the limit of the $ l^{p} $-norms. What is the relativistic calculation of travel time to Proxima Centauri? It has already been  how fast a probe would have to travel to reach Alpha Centauri within 60 years.  NASA has done  into a probe that would take 100 years to make the trip.  But I am interested in this question from a slightly different perspective.  I would like to know how long the trip from our solar system to Proxima Centauri would take for both a ship and for an observer on Earth while accounting for the effects of general relativity on a .  The following assumptions may be made:   The ship starts and ends at 0 km/s relative to the Earth observer. The ship experiences a constant force of acceleration of 20 g until the half-way point and then a constant force of deceleration of 20 g until the destination. The path traveled is such that accleration is in only one spatial direction. The distance traveled is 4.25 light years.   Calculate (accounting for general relativistic effects):   Time of trip for Earth-based observer. Time of trip for ship-based observer. Maximum speed.   You don't need to consider mass, or life-support systems, or method of propulsion; I am really only interested in the effects of relativity on the perceived time of the trip. Use of substitution into the integral $\int_0^2 \frac{\arctan x}{x^2+2x+2}dx$ How to simulate from a Gaussian copula? Suppose that I have two univariate marginal distributions, say $F$ and $G$, which I can simulate from. Now, construct their joint distribution using a , denoted $C(F,G;\Sigma)$. All the parameters are known.  Is there a non-MCMC method for simulating from this copula? I am trying to prove the following.  Proposition Let $g$ be a Lie algebra such that the first derived algebra $Dg$ is a proper ideal of $g$. Consider the quotient $g/D^1 g$, and show that the preimage of any codimension 1 subspace is   an ideal, and has codimension 1.   I could show that the preimage is indeed an ideal, but I need some help with the part about the dimensions:  So suppose that $\phi: x \mapsto [x]$ is the quotient projection. And write $[h] + Dg$  for a codimension 1 subspace of $g$ (here $h\subset g$). Then the preimage of this subspace is just the linear span $h+Dg\leq g$. Let $y+z \in h+Dg$ with $y\in h$ and $z\in Dg$. Let $x\in g$. We want to show that $[x, y+z]\in h$, ie that $h + Dg \lhd g$. We can write $x$ as $x_0+x_1$ for $x_0 \in Dg$, $x_1\not\in Dg$. Then  $$[x,y+z] = [x_0, y+z] + [x_1, y] + [x_1,z] \in h + Dg$$  The inclusion follows since $Dg$ is an ideal so the first and third terms belong $Dg$; and $[x_1, y] \in D_g$, as $g/Dg$ is abelian. I am a beginner using QGIS (1.8.0 Lisboa) on a Mac (OS X 10.6.8 Snow Leopard). I work on a file with two layers in the following sequence (top to bottom):    a vector polygon layer with a few outlines of various buildings in France and Italy (CRS: EPSG:4326 - WGS 84 - "on the fly" re projection is activated ) a Google satellite layer uploaded via open layer plugin.   Sometimes when changing the scale (scrolling in and out) the Google layer updates a little wrong in size or position compared to the polygon layer. But as soon as I "pan" the map everything reconstructs right. Now the problem I have concerns the print composer.  The result of any kind of export - pdf, or image or svg - of my map (vector layer + Google layer in the background) differs from what is shown in the preview of the print composer: the vector layer and the Google layer positions are mismatching and in a different scale. I can send some pictures showing screenshots of the print composer preview and the final results if required.  I tried almost everything:    new files with different CRS settings "cache" update preview "render" update preview different paper sizes,  different scales,   The problem appears only using an open layer map (Google, OpenStreetMap...). If I try the same using two vector layer (shapefile) - one with the buildings, another one with the city in background - everything works out great.  ...exasperating! Since it is a real important research project I would be very grateful for some help and tips. As I have seen in other posts, i.stack.imgur.com is blocked by numerous companies' firewalls including my own. I have started the process to get the restriction lifted but to increase the likelihood of it being granted, have only requested that i.stack.imgur.com be unblocked.  Staying within the context of SO, imgur and the hosting arrangement SO has with them, are there any other sub-domains/domains that I should be requesting be unblocked? i.e. p.stack.imgur.com or *.stack.imgur.com?  I'm not sure if images can still be embedded/hotlinked in posts from other image hosts or not but if they can I'm not interested in unblocking those hosts, just the addresses used by SO for imgur.  Cheers :) Is $\langle1-i\rangle$ a maximal ideal in $\mathbb{Z}[i]$? I'm trying to show that $\langle1-i\rangle$ is a maximal ideal of $\mathbb{Z}[i]$.  I started by assuming there is some ideal $A$ that properly contains $\langle1-i\rangle$, and then I want to show that $1 \in A$, and then I will have that $A= \mathbb{Z}[i] $, so $\langle1-i\rangle$ is maximal.  Is this the right approach?  Thanks  Second Attempt: Because $\forall a+bi \in \mathbb{Z}[i]$, we have $a+bi = (a+b) -b(1-i)$, then we have $a+bi - (a+b) = -b(1-i) \in \langle1-i\rangle$, which implies $a+bi +\langle1-i\rangle = a+b +\langle1-i\rangle$.  So every coset is of the form $c +\langle1-i\rangle$, where $c\in \mathbb{R}$.  Furthermore, $-i(1-i)^2=2 \in \langle1-i\rangle$. Write $c = 2q + r$, where $q,r\in \mathbb{R}$ and $r=0,1$.  Then because $2 \in \langle1-i\rangle$, we have $2q\in \langle1-i\rangle$ and therefore $2q= 2q+r-r = c-r\in \langle1-i\rangle$, so $c+\langle1-i\rangle = r+\langle1-i\rangle$, and every coset is of the form $0 + \langle1-i\rangle$ or $1 +\langle1-i\rangle$. Thus, $1 +\langle1-i\rangle$ is the only nonzero element, and is invertible with itself as its inverse.  Thus, $\mathbb{Z}[i]/\langle1-i\rangle$ is a field with two elements, and by a theorem, $\langle1-i\rangle$ must be maximal.  Is this correct? In the context of boiling water for pasta or other purposes, all over the Internet the advise is oft-repeated that salt should not be added to the water when it is cold in order to prevent damage to the pot such as pitting over long term use.  The reasoning is that the salt stays on the bottom of the pot for longer without dissolving, and has a chance to interact with the surface metal.  Is there any objective evidence--preferably scientifically based--that this phenomenon actually occurs in practical kitchen-type conditions, or is this another piece of common wisdom that is often shared but not backed by evidence, much like  common wisdom that it is necessary to use very large volumes of water to cook pasta? MyClass[] array; List&lt;MyClass&gt; list;   What are the scenarios when one is preferable over the other? And why? Why is the prospective new kilogram standard a sphere? I can understand the choice of material, silicon 28, but why is it a sphere rather than (say) a cube? Article   I would have thought that a sphere would have been the hardest shape to machine accurately. How to fade one material into the other? Hello blender community.  Could someone please let me know how to fix this issue? I have one material for the whole face and a different one for the lips.  there's a noticeable edge that I want to get rid of. I just want it to have an ease fade instead of a sharp edge.   what's the best way to go about this?  Thank you in advance!    Finished Update  I wanted to give an update on how it was fixed with @hexbob6 and @Lemon 's help.    I needed two textures. One is the actual colored version and the 2nd is the black and white masked version. Hexbob6 described very well on the process here:   A: The node process on how to do it.    The B/W masked texture is going to be connected to the Fac of the mixed shader along with its UV coordinates. Make sure the image is on clip instead of repeat. the 1st shader is going to be the black part of the B/W masked texture. An important thing to note is if you have a texture already for the object, be sure to connect the other UV coordinates! the 2nd shader will be the white part of the B/W masked texture.   B: This section is the UV layout called "mainUV" where all the color goes.  C: This section is the B/W masked texture to focus on the lips.  D: Just the render view  E: Best way to texture something is to be able to see it in 3D view and texture paint.  F: Just showing that there are two textures to keep track of. One is the main UV and the 2nd is to focus on the lip.   That was it. Once again thanks to those who replied and helped me figure this problem. In the process I learned other things that I didn't know about blender even though I've been using it for years. In TeX, how is computing zero sign written with slanted vertical line on it? How do you find the Lie algebra of a Lie group (in practice)? Given a Lie group, how are you meant to find its Lie algebra?  The Lie algebra of a Lie group is the set of all the left invariant vector fields, but how would you determine them?  My group is the set of all affine maps $x \rightarrow A.x+v$ from $R^n$ to $R^n$ under function composition.