Is there a way to make Windows Updates not ot use up all the internet band?  I use Windows 8.1 Home Edition (64 bits).
I have a Windows 8 (64-bit, not Pro) machine, and I want to limit the Internet bandwidth available to Windows Update. I read about BITS and GPMC methods, but I don't know how to open the BITS window, and GPMC seems like a Windows Server feature.  How can I control how much bandwidth is available to Windows Update and BITS?
Midpoint-Convex and Continuous Implies Convex Subfiles failing with custom class I want to prove the definition of limit of a function from definition (1) to definition (2).  (1) A function $f(x)$ is said to have $f^*$ as the limit as $x$ tends $x^*$ iff for every sequence $\{x_n\}$ with limit $x^*$, the limit $\lim_{n-&gt;\infty}f(x_n)$ exists and is equal to $f^*$. (2) A function is said to have $f^*$ as the limit as $x$ tends $x^*$ iff for each $\epsilon &gt;0$, there exists a $\delta_\epsilon &gt;0$ such that $|f(x)-f^*| &lt;\epsilon \forall |x^*-x|&lt;\delta_\epsilon$  I am confused about the steps. Suppose I am given an $\epsilon &gt; 0$ and $x^*$. I have to show the existence of a $\delta_\epsilon &gt;0$ such that for all $x$ satisfying  $|x^*-x|&lt;\delta_\epsilon$ I can construct a sequence $x_n$ which converges to $x^*$ and $x_n=x$ for some $n \geq N$. Then I can say that $f(x_n)-f^*=f(x)-f^* &lt; \epsilon$. I think I may have made some mistake about the steps.  My main confusion is the following : Suppose I choose $\delta_\epsilon=\epsilon$. Then if a sequence $\{x_n\}$ converges to $x^*$ then $x_n=x$ (where $x$ satisfies $|x-x^*|&lt;\epsilon$) for some $n\geq N$. Now, $\lim_{n-&gt;\infty}f(x_n)$ exists implies there exists an $M$ such that $\forall n\geq M$, $f(x_n)-f^* &lt;\epsilon$. Now, I need to show that for some $n \geq M$ indeed $x_n=x$. How do I show that ? This $M$ and $N$ are different. Being a fairly new user something I don't seem to be able to locate is information on whether small edits to the title are considered as trivial edits. I see the usual recommendation when suggesting an edit is:     Avoid trivial, tiny one-letter edits unless absolutely necessary.   I can see the logic in that for most cases, but for example I just read a question with a title containing "Andriod" which would be trivial in one way but also affect the ability of users to locate the question using both the site and external search engines. Would it be frowned upon to suggest an edit for those cases? Matlab - Function taking no arguments within a class I've been stuck on this problem for about an hour.     In an ideal transformer, the same flux passes through all turns of the primary and of the secondary . Show that in this case $M^2=L_1L_2$, where $M$ is the mutual inductance of the coils, and $L_1$, $L_2$ are their individual self-inductances.   My first instinct was the following: If we isolate the response of each coil to the other one, we get the equations $N_1\Phi_1=MI_2$ and $N_2\Phi_2=MI_1$, where $\Phi$ is magnetic flux going through a single turn of the coil and $I$ is current. Likewise, if we isolate the response of each coil to itself, we get the equations $N_1\Phi_1=L_1I_1$ and $N_2\Phi_2=L_2I_2$. I would now naturally want to say "Now just multiply $N_1\Phi_1$ and $N_2\Phi_2$ both ways, and get the desired result!" i.e.,  $$(N_1\Phi_1)(N_2\Phi_2)=(MI_2)(MI_1)=(L_1I_1)(L_2I_2)\implies M^2=L_1L_2$$  But that's incorrect, because the response of the coils to themselves and to the other coil are different quantities (i.e. not necessarily equal).  Realizing this, I write down the more general equations.  $$N_1\Phi_1=MI_2+L_1I_1$$ $$N_2\Phi_2=MI_1+L_2I_2$$  Now even with the hypothesis that $\Phi_1=\Phi_2=\Phi$, I still can't see how the identity $M^2=L_1L_2$ follows. Could you help clear up my confusion?  *Taken from D. Griffiths Introduction to Electrodynamics (4th ed.), Problem 7.58. Is "reserved" an adjective or verb in this example? I need an answer about this sentence please:     We had a reserved seat.   Reserved in this sentence is a verb. I read that in a morphology book.  My question is: how does this become a verb?  I thought it was an adjective. I want to show that for $S,T\in B(H)$ bounded operators on Hilbertspace with $S\geq 0,T\geq 0$ and $ST=TS$,  we have $S+T\geq 0$, and $ST\geq 0$.  $T\geq 0$ means $(Tx,x)\geq 0$.    To me it seems that $((S+T)x,x) = (Sx,x)+(Tx,x)\geq 0$. But for $ST$ i like some help.   There is a theorem in Rudin (12.32) that says that for every $T\in B(H)$ we have an equivalence:   $T$ is positive $\Leftrightarrow$ $T$ is self adjoint, i.e. $T=T^*$ and $\sigma(T)\subset [0,\infty)$.   Since $S, T$ are self adjoint we know that $ST=TS = S^*T^* = T^*S^*$ ($ST$ is selfadjoint since $S,T$ commute). Also I read somewhere that if $S,T $ commute then $\sigma(ST)\subset \sigma(S)\sigma(T)$, but I am not sure if this is true. Clearly I cant prove it, but if it were true by this ''Theorem'' it would follow that $ST \geq 0$.   Is there a more straightforward way? Why would Mystique's DNA allow for Sentinels that can duplicate mutant powers? The future Sentinels in  are clearly shown adapting to powers thrown at them by copying them. Isn't that what Rogue's DNA would allow for, not Mystique's? Mystique can just change appearance, not copy powers ... right? So why would study of her mutant genes allow for the abilities of the future Sentinels? How can a distribution have infinite mean and variance? It would be appreciated if the following examples could be given:   A distribution with infinite mean and infinite variance. A distribution with infinite mean and finite variance. A distribution with finite mean and infinite variance.  A distribution with finite mean and finite variance.   It comes from me seeing these unfamiliar terms (infinite mean, infinite variance) used in an article I am reading, googling and reading a thread on the , and not finding it a sufficiently clear explanation. I also haven't found any explanations in any of my own textbooks. I'm setting up an online ordering system but I'm in Australia and for international customers I'd like to show prices in US dollars or Euros so they don't have to make the mental effort to convert from Australian dollars.  Does anyone know if I can pull up to date exchange rates off the net somewhere in an easy-to-parse format I can access from my PHP script ?    UPDATE: I have now written a PHP class which implements this. . In iOS 7, when the phone is in Sleep mode and I receive a call, I don't see the "Decline" button. All I see is a green "Answer..." button that requires me to slide to the right to answer the call. Is there anyway we can change that? I know that there are buttons for "Remind Me Later, etc" but I want the "Decline" button.   It works fine when the phone is not in Sleep mode. Can I just change straightforward wheel axles to QR skewers? General rule for partial fraction decomposition MSTest Code Coverage Free, open-source substitutes for Mendeley? If $Y|X \sim \mathcal{N}(0,1)$ then is $Y^2|X \sim \chi^2(1)$? Suppose we have random variables $X$ and $Y$ such that $Y|X \sim \mathcal{N}(0,1)$. Can we then say that $Y^2|X \sim \chi^2(1)$? If we can, then what about when $Y|X \sim \mathcal{N}(0,\sigma^2/4)$, can we use the results of  to say that $Y^2|X \sim \frac{\sigma^2}{4}\chi^2(1)$? Essentially I want to know if the results of squaring a normal distribution can be applied to the case where a random variable is conditionally normally distributed? Algorithms for Time Series Anomaly Detection I'm currently using Twitter's AnomalyDetection in R: .  This algorithm provides time series anomaly detection for data with seasonality.  Question: are there any other algorithms similar to this (controlling for seasonality doesn't matter)?  I'm trying to score as many time series algorithms as possible on my data so that I can pick the best one / ensemble. Countable union of countable sets(ZF) I need help solving this past exam question, the professor posted exam questions with out solutions to last year's exam, I tried reduction of order, however that seemed to complicate things. And then I tried Euler-Cauchy method however I realized that won't work due to the $(2x^2 + 1)y''$.  Given $y_1=x$ is a solution $$(2x^2 + 1)y'' − 4xy' + 4y = 0$$ Find the second solution $y_2$ for equation.