Why don't have a specific register to access this other part of register ( 16-32 )?  Like ah or al to access a 8-bits part of ax register.
%AX = (%AH + %AL)  So why not %EAX = (%SOME_REGISTER + %AX) for some register %SOME_REGISTER?
I have heard that .NET is not free and that I have to pay Microsoft if I develop a .NET application.  Is this true?  If so:   What do I have to pay? I'm a subscriber to the MSDN via the Academic Alliance (we download a variety of Microsoft Software products for free, like VS2008 and Windows Server 2008). Do I have to pay for the software that I make with these tools? What about web apps with ASP.NET? Is there a payment due when I host my application or do I just pay for the technology?   EDIT:  So what you are saying is that it's the same to develop a web application using ASP.NET or PHP (ignoring technical issues, just payment side), all what I have to pay is the hosting fees?  EDIT 2:  .NET rules :) This is Baby Rudin exercise 7 of Chapter 3. Prove that the convergence of $\sum{a_n}$ implies the convergence of $\sum{\sqrt {a_k} \over k}$ if $a_n \ge 0$.  Proof:  I will attempt to show that the cauchy criterion is met so $${\sum_{k=n}^m {\sqrt {a_k} \over k}} \le \epsilon $$ for all $n,m \le N_1$. Im disregarding the absolute value since its all positive terms.   Since $\sum{a_n}$ converges, we know that the $\lim \limits_{n \to \infty} a_n =0$ So there exists some $N_2$ such that for all $n \ge N_2$, $$   a_n \lt \ {{(m-n)}^2k^2(\epsilon)^2} $$ I am again disregarding the absolute values because its always positive Let N=max{$N_1,N_2$} then for all $n,m \ge N$ $$\sum_{k=n}^m {\sqrt {a_k} \over k} \le \sum_{k=n}^m {\sqrt {{(m-n)}^2k^2(\epsilon)^2} \over k} \le \sum_{k=n}^m{(m-n)(\epsilon)} = \epsilon $$  Maybe this is just crazy, should I just use Cauchy-Schwarz inequality and forget about this or could I possibly make this method work? A common good practice in Machine Learning is to do feature normalization or data standardization of the predictor variables, that's it, center the data substracting the mean and normalize it dividing by the variance (or standard deviation too). For self containment and to my understanding we do this to achieve two main things:   Avoid extra small model weights for the purpose of numerical stability. Ensure quick convergence of optimization algorithms like e.g. Conjugate Gradient so that the large magnitude of one predictor dimension w.r.t. the others doesn't lead to slow convergence.   We usually split the data into training, validation and testing sets. In the literature we usually see that to do feature normalization they take the mean and variance (or standard deviation) over the whole set of predictor variables. The big flaw I see here is that if you do that, you are in fact introducing future information into the training predictor variables namely the future information contained in the mean and variance.  Therefore, I do feature normalization over the training data and save the mean and variance. Then I apply feature normalization to the predictor variables of the validation and test data sets using the training mean and variances. Are there any fundamental flaws with this? can anyone recommend a better alternative? Hi I can compute a Basic Loan Amortization Schedule, But now I'm trying to Calculate a Seasonal Loan Amortization Schedule . So for example A loan starts at January And Will go on for 3 years, with Monthly Payments. Interest is at 3% Annually and is compounded Annually. During the months of September, October, November, December It'll only accumulate Interest But no payments and principal. Principal is 100000. How Do I calculate Payments and interest. Do I need a visa for a connecting flight to Japan? I'm going to the Philippines this October and would like to layover in Japan. I found a reasonably priced ticket with a 15-hour layover to Haneda, however, I have to transfer to Narita. Do I need a visa since I'm going to have to stay at a hotel and ride a bus to travel to Narita airport? Thank you! apt install "*" method in Ubuntu 20.04 does not work Do null and alternative hypotheses have to be exhaustive or not? I saw a lot of times claims that they have to be exhaustive (the examples in such books were always set in such way, that they were indeed), on the other hand I also saw a lot of times books stating they should be exclusive (for example $\mathrm{H}_{0}$ as $\mu_1=\mu_2$ and $\mathrm{H}_{1}$ as $\mu_1&gt;\mu_2$) without clarifying the exhaustive issue. Only before typing in this question I found somewhat stronger statement on the  -- "The alternative need not be the logical negation of the null hypothesis".  Could someone more experienced explain which is true, and I would be grateful for shedding some light on the (historical?) reasons for such difference (the books were written by statisticians after all, i.e. scientists, not philosophers). I'm currently the proud owner of Frost the horse. What I want to know is, what will happen to him if I ride another horse?  Obviously nothing will happen as long as I have him in sight, e.g. I'll be able to ride Frost to make him my horse again.  Scenarios  But what will happen if, before I get back on Frost, I fast travel somewhere? Will he return to where I originally stole him, will he disappear forever, or can I own two horses simultaneously?  Ownership?  If he goes back to where I originally stole him, will I have to steal him again, and therefore never be his true owner again?  Two Horses?  The reason I'm asking is because I want to get Shadowmere (the Dark Brotherhood horse) while keeping Frost. Is it possible to do this, or will riding Shadowmere make me lose Frost forever? I have georeferenced some images (ArcGIS -> Update Georeferencing) which creates a *.tfwx file with the new parameters for georeferencing.   I renamed it to *.tfw but QGIS is not able to read the georeferencing information.   Does anybody has any useful tips how to fix this? Spartan 6 DCM unstable clock output How to understand dot product is the angle's cosine? How can one see that a dot product gives the angle's cosine between two vectors. (assuming they are normalized)  Thinking about how to prove this in the most intuitive way resulted in proving a trigonometric identity: $\cos(a+b)=\cos(a)\cos(b)-\sin(a)\sin(b)$.  But even after proving this successfully, the connection between and cosine and dot product does not immediately stick out and instead I rely on remembering that this is valid while taking comfort in the fact that I've seen the proof in the past.  My questions are:   How do you see this connection? How do you extend the notion of dot product vs. angle to higher dimensions - 4 and higher? I never really bothered to keep my Hotmail contact information up to date, so now that I connected it to Windows 8, suddenly I see all this outdated contact information or people I've long stopped talking to.    I don't see any buttons or options where I can click to delete someone.  So how do I clean up my Windows 8 People app and remove these contacts? Are comments on answers to my question supposed to show up in my recent activity Creating Ellipse in WGS84, but with metric parameters I have the function  --Ellipse(x,y,rx,ry,rotation,#of segments in 1/4 of ellipse) SELECT ST_Translate( ST_Rotate( ST_Scale( ST_Buffer(ST_Point(0,0), 0.5, $6), $3, $4), $5), $1, $2)   I have points in WGS84 (x,y), radiuses in meters (rx, ry), rotation angle in degrees. And I need a new WGS84 geometry as a result.  As you can see I can't call this function without conversions between WGS84 and some metric SRID. But my points aren't in a definite region. So a SRID which is optimal for one point, throws an error for another point during conversion.  Is there a common way to get an optimal metric projection (SRID) for a WGS84 point? Or at least to use some rough, but world-wide universal metric projection? Or maybe there's a trick for this case? Is there an easy way to calculate the residue at one of the poles of a rational expression of the form $\frac{1}{1+z^n}$?  I end up having to add a bunch of polar-form complex numbers in the denominator which I have no idea how to do except to convert them to rectangular coordinates, which becomes really messy.  I feel like there ought to be simple pattern/rule for such a canonical expression. Proof of $a^n+b^n$ divisible by $a+b$ when $n$ is odd $$\lim\limits_{n\to\infty} \int_{0}^{1} f(x^n)dx = f(0)$$  when f is continuous on $[0,1]$  I know it can be proved using bounded convergence theorem but,  I wanna know proof using only basic properties of riemann integral and fundamental theorem of calculus and MVT for integrals ...   Thank you. Is it a good practice to refer to countries, ships etc using the feminine form? While talking about ships and countries, is it a good practice to use the feminine form?  For example:  "Her economy" - while referring to a country's economy "Her flag (or deck etc)" - while referring to a ship  Is this practice common? Is it used today? Is there an idiom for someone who gets what he deserved? Like someone receiving punishment for his evil deeds or someone getting awarded for his good deeds? Set of continuity points of a real function I have a question about subsets $$ A \subseteq \mathbb R $$ for which there exists a function $$f : \mathbb R \to \mathbb R$$ such that the set of continuity points of $f$ is $A$. Can I characterize this kind of sets? In a topological,measurable or in some way? For example, does there exist a function continuous on $\mathbb Q$ and discontinuous on the irrationals?