Proving $(a_n)$ diverges For  a given sequence $(a_n)$, where $a_1&gt;0$ and for each natural number $n\ge 1$ :  $$a_{n+1}= \dfrac{a_n^2 + 1}{a_n}$$  Prove that a sequence $(a_n)$ diverges.  Proof:  (objectionable evidence)  Lower barrier 0, prove.  $a_n&gt;0$   $\forall n\in N$. $N$ is natural number and $N&gt;1$.  $n=1$   $a_{1+1}=\frac{a_1\cdot a_1+1}{a_1}=a_1+\frac{1}{a_1} &gt;0$  $a_n&gt;0$ $\Rightarrow a_{n+1}&gt;0$ :   $a_{n+1}=a_n+\frac{1}{a_n}&gt;0$, because $a_n &gt; 0$  Monotonics:  $a_n\geq a_{n+1}$  $a_n-a_{n+1}=a_n-a_n-\frac{1}{a_n} &lt; 0$, because $\frac{1}{a_n}&gt;0$   Sequence is growing.  lim $a_{n+1} = A$  lim $a_{n+1} =$ lim $(a_n+\frac{1}{a_n}) =$ lim $a_n +$ lim $\frac{1}{a_n} = A + \frac{1}{A} = \frac{A\cdot A+1}{A}$ ....  Is this proof correct? Where are mistakes? The correct end of proof?
Let $a_n$ be a sequence s.t $a_1 > 0 \land a_{n+1} = a_n + \dfrac{1}{a_n}$. Prove that $a_n$ is increasing and tends to infinity Let $a_n$ be a sequence s.t $a_1 &gt; 0 \land a_{n+1} = a_n + \frac{1}{a_n}$. Prove that $a_n$ is increasing and tends to infinity.  Proof:   Consider $a_{n+1} - a_n$:  $a_{n+1} - a_n = a_n + \frac{1}{a_n} - a_n = \frac{1}{a_n}$ This is greater than $0$. Thus, $a_n$ is increasing.  Now this is where I need some help. I would like to say that $a_n$ is unbounded and then conclude that monotone and unbounded implies tending to infinity.  Maybe by contradiction?
How can I switch a 32-bit installation to a 64-bit one? I've got a 32-bit Ubuntu installation running on 64-bit hardware. Now that , I would like to switch to 64-bit without having to reinstall the OS.  This is one of the :  Shawn installed his system using the 32-bit version of Ubuntu, but his hardware is 64-bit and he wants to switch over. He manually installs the amd64 versions of dpkg and apt, replacing the i386 versions and changing which architecture is used as the default; then he installs the amd64 ubuntu-minimal package; then he installs the amd64 ubuntu-desktop package. Over time the remaining i386 packages are replaced automatically on upgrade.  However, when trying to follow the instructions in there, I cannot find any 64-bit version of dpkg or apt.  Did this user story got implemented in a different way in the final spec, or do I need to do something differently?  In short, how can I switch my 32-bit installation to 64-bit? How to install packages to external drive (and run them)? I am running Xenial 16.04 and looking to install packages to an external drive - my computer has a 32gb SSD so it would be very useful to me to be able to use an external drive.  In a quick search I found a framework called  which seems to be designed to package all dependencies for a program (chromium, GIMP, some python packages, etc), but haven't had time to look into it.   seems to be looking for the same solution I am.   Thanks, Chris Subscribing to questions and comments that don't belong to you Finding the volume of the tetrahedron. Find the volume of the tetrahedron with the vertices $P(1,1,1)$, $Q(1, 2, 3)$, $R(3, 1, 2)$, and $S(2, 3, 1)$. Updating the SubscriberKey on the All Subscriber table through the API I'm trying to update an existing Subscriber in the All Subscriber Table through the API; i've set up the AppId in the App Center and have connected and created Subscribers, but i'm still having issues updating.  What call do I need to be making to do this? These are the ones i've been trying. Is a transit visa required to pass through Bangkok Airport? Examples of bijective map from $\mathbb{R}^3\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ Could any one give an example of a bijective map from $\mathbb{R}^3\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$?  Thank you. Show that no application $f: \mathbb{R}^2 \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$, of $C^k$ class, $k \geq 1$ can be injective How can I proof this:     Show that no application $f: \mathbb{R}^2 \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$, of $C^k$ class, $k \geq 1$ can be injective, i.e., there are $A,B \in \mathbb{R}^2$ such that $A \neq B$ and $f(A) = f(B)$ (Hint: show that given $(a,b) \in \mathbb{R}^2$ in every open neighbourhood of $(a,b)$ there are points $(c,d),(c_1,d_1)$ where ${\partial}_1f(c,d) \neq 0$ or ${\partial}_1f(c_1,d_1) \neq 0$).   The problem is that I have no idea how to use the hint.  Thanks for all your comments. I have some music discs, but every time I put it in a jukebox I can't hear it. It says it's playing, my friend (on PS4) says he can hear it, but I don't. All other audio is fine, I can hear the game audio fine, even if I have a world that's only me: it still doesn't produce jukebox sounds. It visually shows that it's playing (the notes come out of the jukebox) but there is no music. I play on Pocket Edition. Can someone help me resolve this issue? I have two NTFS partitions, and I don't want to mount them manually every-time I start Ubuntu.   How can I do this?  Is there a tool or a code to use?   If so, is it safe to automount? specially when they are being used by another OS? When I was in the university (in the late 90s, circa 1995) I was told there had been research investigating the $2$ (the square of distance) in the Newton's law of universal gravitation.  $$F=G\frac{m_1m_2}{r^2}.$$  Maybe a model like   $$F=G\frac{m_1m_2}{r^a}$$  with $a$ slightly different from $2$, let say $1.999$ or $2.001$, fits some experimental data better?  Is that really true? Or did I misunderstand something? Sqrt disappeared when exporting plot to PDF in version 10 Quantum mechanical books for mathematicians I'm a mathematician. I have good knowledge of superior analysis, distribution theory, Hilbert spaces, Sobolev spaces, and applications to PDE theory. I also have good knowledge of differential geometry. I would like to study the Semiclassic Analysis, but perhaps I must first study the foundations of quantum mechanics. So I would like to know what book you recommend me to begin studying quantum mechanics. I'm primarily interested in a mathematical point of view. I have seen some books of this type, but I would like to have some other opinion.  Thanks for every reply I was just reading Harry Potter and the Deathly Hallows, and I was wondering, when Hermione Granger changed into Bellatrix Lestrange, she should've obtained the Dark Mark, temporarily.  Now, my question is: would the Dark Mark work if pressed? pgfplots: prevent single plot from being listed in legend In order to fill the area between two complex curves I use tables and the vertcat command (see ).   Now I don't want the plotted area to appear in my legend, just the two curves. Is there any command to prevent the yellow area plot from being added to my legend?  this could be a minimal example:  \documentclass{article} \usepackage{pgfplots}  \begin{document} \begin{tikzpicture}   \begin{axis}[area style,axis on top]     \addplot+[mark=none,fill=yellow,draw=none] {0.1*x^2} \closedcycle;     \addplot[mark=none,draw=red,line legend] {0.1*x^2};     \addplot[mark=none,draw=blue,line legend] {0.0*x^2};     \legend{red curve,blue curve};     % \legend{\empty,red curve,blue curve};   \end{axis} \end{tikzpicture} \end{document}   With this legend{...}-command the last plot is skipped, an additional \empty doesn't help, too.  Sadly, drawing the first to plots together with fill=yellow,draw=red is not an option for me. Does anybody know any inside hacks? As far as I know, there is no command shown in the manual. Thanks in advance. If $\mathfrak p \subset R$ is a prime ideal, prove that for every nilpotent $r \in R$ it follows that $r \in \mathfrak p$.   The only hint that my tutor gave me was to use induction. Can someone explain what he means by this?  Thanks for the help! Let $(X,\mathcal{M},\mu)$ be a measure space and $\{f\}$ be a sequence of functions on $X$, each of which is integrable over $X$. Show that $\{f_n\}$ is uniformly integrable if and only if for each $\varepsilon \gt 0$, there is a $\delta \gt 0$ such that for any natural number $n$ and measurable subset $E$ of $X$, if $\mu(E) \lt \delta$, $$ \left|\int_E f_n~d\mu\right| \lt \epsilon.$$     I think one direction $(\Rightarrow)$ is clear. Since $f_n$ being uniformly integrable imply that for every $\varepsilon\gt 0,~\exists \delta \gt 0$ such that for any $E\in \mathcal{M},~\mu(E)\lt \delta$, $\int_E |f_n|~d\mu$ for every natural $n$. But then   $$ \left|\int_E f_n~d\mu\right|\le \int_E|f_n|~d\mu \lt \varepsilon.$$    Any suggestions for the other direction?   Edit:  Following Davide's suggestions, I have   $$ \begin{align*} \int_E |f_n|~d\mu &amp; \le \int_{E\cap [f_n \ge 0]} f_n~d\mu + \int_{E\cap [f_n \lt 0]} (-f_n)~d\mu\\ &amp; = \left| \int_{E\cap [f_n \ge 0]} f_n~d\mu \right| + \left| \int_{E\cap [f_n \lt 0]}f_n~d\mu \right| \\ &amp; \lt \varepsilon + \varepsilon = 2\varepsilon. \end{align*} $$ What focal length lens do I need for photographing the moon? I would like to know whether it is possible to photograph moon without any flaws with a canon EOS 550d..   Also to get an image of the moon as close as the following image, what kind of equipment(lens,etc) is need to be used with the 550d Body I'm curious whether I can find the overlap $\langle q | p \rangle$ knowing only the following:   $|q\rangle$ is an eigenvector of an operator $Q$ with eigenvalue $q$. $|p\rangle$ is an eigenvector of an operator $P$ with eigenvalue $p$. $Q$ and $P$ are Hermitian. $[Q,P] = i \hbar$.   I'm asking because books and references I've looked in tend to assume that $Q$ is a differential operator when viewed in the $P$-basis, then show that it satisfies the commutation relation. (I haven't read one yet that proves that the form given for $Q$ is the only possible one.) I've heard, though, that we can work purely from the hypothesis of the commutation relation and prove the properties of $Q$ and $P$ from it. What does the , operator do in C?