I have 2 tables Transporter and Cars ,    I want to display all cars for a single Transporters in a single row   using joins I am getting cars all but in different row    I tried Group by clause but it is not working    What modifications Can i do in a query ?
Using MySQL, I can do something like:  SELECT hobbies FROM peoples_hobbies WHERE person_id = 5;   My Output:  shopping fishing coding   but instead I just want 1 row, 1 col:  Expected Output:  shopping, fishing, coding   The reason is that I'm selecting multiple values from multiple tables, and after all the joins I've got a lot more rows than I'd like.  I've looked for a function on  and it doesn't look like the CONCAT or CONCAT_WS functions accept result sets.  So does anyone here know how to do this?
Ubuntu 18.04 bond with netplan duplicate MAC address after cloning There appears to be a giant security vulnerability with Android that seems to basically affect all phones.  wrote:  The vast majority of Android phones can be hacked by sending them a specially crafted multimedia message (MMS), a security researcher [Joshua Drake] has found. ... Drake found multiple vulnerabilities in a core Android component called Stagefright that’s used to process, play and record multimedia files. Some of the flaws allow for remote code execution and can be triggered when receiving an MMS message, downloading a specially crafted video file through the browser or opening a Web page with embedded multimedia content. ... The MMS attack vector is the scariest of all because it doesn’t require any interaction from the user; the phone just needs to receive a malicious message. For example, the attacker could send the malicious MMS when the victim is sleeping and the phone’s ringer is silenced, Drake said. After exploitation the message can be deleted, so the victim will never even know that his phone was hacked, he said.  What can a regular user do to mitigate the issue? Disable Google Hangouts? We are in the combat phase:   I declared my attackers  My opponent declared his blockers, stating which attackers he was blocking I cast an instant, which automatically kills his blocker. There is nothing blocking my attacker now   Now we're in the damage phase. I said that my attacker now does damage and  reduces my opponent's hit points. My opponent said that because my attacker was blocked no damage could be done. I pointed out that the blocker was destroyed before the damage phase, so therefore he wasn't blocking, but he wasn't having it. (My attacker does not have trample)  Is this covered by a specific section in the rules? How to run a background task in a servlet based web application? Say I want to copy the contents of a directory excluding files and folders whose names contain the word 'Music'.  cp [exclude-matches] *Music* /target_directory   What should go in place of [exclude-matches] to accomplish this? How to mount PCIe SSD from MacBook Air in another computer I got this SSD out of an Apple laptop that's broken from liquid damage.  What is this connection called and how do I mount this storage device to retrieve data from it? It looks like PCIe. Does Apple sell a part to mount this via USB adapter or something? Without recasting and in lieu of unsightly suspensive hyphenation, could these work? The en dash (which means "to") is used between the figures, and the hyphens are used in the compound modifier. To me, the examples below are concise and clear.  Do you agree that the examples below are 100% punctuated correctly--yes or no?  45–50-year-old men  10–20-mile radius  $45–$55-million-per-year industry  $100,000–$150,000-a-year savings  10–15-degree temperature difference  $2–$5-per-day service fees  45–75-cent-a-week raises  55–65-mph speed zone  15–20-ounce steaks  20%–40%-a-year tax increases Reporting Mann-Whitney U-Test without homogenity of variance The Mann-Whitney test requires homogeneity of variance if a median difference is suppossed to be statistically significant.  In case homogenity of variance is not met, but the test is significant:  Which aspects of the test can I report? Delayed eraser experiment (Kim experiment) Will I receive an interference pattern on D0 detector   if D1, D2, D3, D4 exist in the set up of the experiment, but they are thousands of light years far? Simply, to set up the experiment so that I detect all of the signal photons on D0 before I detect any of idler photons! Calculating the total number of surjective functions A real $2 \times 2 $ matrix $M$ such that $M^2 = \tiny \begin{pmatrix} -1&0 \\ 0&-1-\epsilon \\ \end{pmatrix}$ , then : A real $2 \times 2 $ matrix $M$ such that $$M^2 =  \begin{pmatrix} -1&amp;0 \\ 0&amp;-1-\epsilon  \\   \end{pmatrix}$$ (a) exists for all $\epsilon &gt; 0$. (b) does not exist for any $\epsilon &gt; 0$. (c) exists for some $\epsilon &gt; 0$. (d) None of the above is true.  Attempt: I couldn't think of any theory base to prove / disprove the existence of such a matrix. Could someone please give me a hint on how to go about this problem? Thank you very much for your help in this regard. How can I tell which cards or sets are currently legal in various formats? I haven't played Magic: the Gathering since the days of Onslaught and Mirrodin, and I would like to try to catch back up. Since all my cards are quite dated now, I may be more interested in formats other than the most up-to-date one.  Rather than ask what is currently legal in various formats (since that is likely too localized), I would rather pose the question of how can I tell which sets/cards are legal in each format. Question Prove that for every integer k≥1, exists a self-complementary graph with 4k vertices half of which are of degree 2k-1 and the other half of degree 2k.  My approach So, I think the easiest way to prove what is asked is by induction. I can prove the base case for k=1, but as far as the inductive step is concerned, I cannot seem to reach a conclusion as to why if the statement holds for n, then it holds for n+1.  Any help would be appreciated. Validation Error less than training error? I found two questions  and  about this issue but there is no obvious answer or explanation yet.I enforce the same problem where the validation error is less than training error in my Convolution Neural Network. What does that mean? I'm very familiar with how symbols display differently in inline mode (with $ ... $) vs. how display math shows them (with \[ ... \] or $$ ... $$).  Two examples would be with limits  $\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}f(x)$   vs.  \[ \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}f(x) \]   and with sums  $\sum_{n=1}^{x} n^2$   vs.  \[ \sum_{n=1}^{x} n^2 \]   My Question is:     How do you display these things in inline mode (with all the nice inline formatting) as if they were in display mode ?   The inverse -- how to display things in display mode as if they were in inline mode -- is also of interest. I was looking at the decomposition of Fibonacci numbers using the definition of $F_n = F_{n-1} + F_{n-2}$, and noted the pattern in the coefficients of the terms were Fibonacci numbers. It appears to hold, and I believe it's true, but I haven't seen a proof for it. Does one exist?  $F_n = 1F_{n-1} + 1F_{n-2}$ $F_n = 2F_{n-2} + 1F_{n-3}$ $F_n = 3F_{n-3} + 2F_{n-4}$ $F_n = 5F_{n-4} + 3F_{n-5}$ etc  This can be generalized to $F_n = F_xF_{n-(x-1)}+F_{x-1}F_{n-x}$ How does Annihilation work? What is the maximum texture size available on the iPad? Edges on an even number of Hamilton cycles Let's fix some terminology first. A category $\mathcal{C}$ is preabelian if:  1) $Hom_{\mathcal{C}}(A,B)$ is an abelian group for every $A,B$ such that composition is biadditive,  2) $\mathcal{C}$ has a zero object,  3) $\mathcal{C}$ has binary products,  4) $\mathcal{C}$ has kernels and cokernels.  A category $\mathcal{C}$ is abelian if it is preabelian and satisfies:  5) every monomorphism is a kernel and every epimorphism is a cokernel.  Define the coimage of a map to be the cokernel of its kernel, and the image to be the kernel of its cokernel. We have the following commutative diagram:    where $\overline{f}$ is the only existing map (because of universality of kernel and cokernel).  I'm having trouble proving the following:     A preabelian category $\mathcal{C}$ is abelian iff $\overline{f}$ is an isomorphism.   The converse is easily shown, I'm having trouble proving $\Rightarrow$...