Artificial limitation in games? I've made a research and found out that without dedicated graphics games use max 50% of each processor's core. And it seems to be an artificial limitation. For a  powerful processor 50% is a very big number compared to a powerful graphics card.  So if you could buy 1 car engine vs. 10 motorcycle engines that apply twice the power for half the cost and weight, which would you buy?  I dont need your long lectures about the cpu and gpu architectures You cant answer the simple question why I must buy 10 motorcycles when I already have an universal car (processor) fastened with prediction and loaded only at 50% that can turn into 10 motorcycles and a car. And by the way today motorcycles (gpus) costs almost as much as cars (cpus)  Sure, some people and companies write inefficient code.  There is no problems to make a code which will use 100% of a processor's capacity. So it is rather the artificial limitation than unwilling.
Why do games run slow on CPU Maybe my question sounds naive because I'm not a game developer but I dont see objective reasons for this. An average cpu is in times more powerful than an average gpu like a few graphics cards in one. The most repeated reasons in internet:  the GPU isn't as busy as the CPU  If the gpu renders the screen how it can not be busy The modern cpus are powerful enough. They are not busy most of time. For example my cpu's usage is 3%.  many GPU's are designed to process graphics commands in parallel, CPU single threads them  What bothers the games to run a few parallel processes even on one cpu core? In my opinion its not correct to tell that the gpu is better if games never use 100% of the cpu's capacity. To be specific they dont use even 50%.  To clarify my question based on responses in the comments:  Did you mean to ask &quot;Why do games render more slowly on the CPU?&quot;  Yes I mean why the cpu cant do the whole work for games when it is underloaded and especially if it does the largest part of work in any case.  You can not compare GPUs and CPUs directly, because they do different things.  What bothers them to do the same things?  The CPU isn't as well suited to performing rendering calculations  I dont understand what &quot;suited&quot; means. And why the cpu is not suitable for primitive tasks aka paint roller.  adding additional parallel processes doesn't improve performance  Then why do you produce multicore graphics cards and multicore central processing units? Just give various parts of one task to a few processes if one process is slow and 100% of the capacity is not used. What bothers to emulate the gpu? Its also unclear for me why when you play without a separate graphics module the games see only one cpu core when you play with the gpu they see and use all the cpu cores. May be some magic.
dpkg: error: dpkg status database is locked by another process I just wondered if somebody could tell me what this means:  E: dpkg was interrupted, you must manually run 'sudo dpkg --configure -a' to correct the problem. reidsr@ubuntu:~$ sudo dpkg --configure -a dpkg: error: dpkg status database is locked by another process reidsr@ubuntu:~$    How do I run sudo dpkg --configure -a  manually? Is 'had have + past participle' a correct grammatical form? Why does the Lasso provide Variable Selection? Prove that $\text{rank}(X^TX)=\text{rank}(X)$ Prove, for real $X$, that $\text{rank}(X^TX)=\text{rank}(X)$.  Could anyone please help me with this problem? I've tried to use full-rank factorization and rank-related theorems mentioned in my book but still failed to solve this. I am learning linear algebra by myself and my book has no solutions manual so I find it really hard to get used to solve linear algebra problems.    Many thanks in advance for your help! Do objects rotate around the torque vector or its center? If a sphere has a torque vector coming out of it at point A, would the sphere rotate about its center or the axis of the torque vector? When I render a page using the Django template renderer, I can pass in a dictionary variable containing various values to manipulate them in the page using {{ myVar }}.  Is there a way to access the same variable in Javascript (perhaps using the DOM, I don't know how Django makes the variables accessible)? I want to be able to lookup details using an AJAX lookup based on the values contained in the variables passed in. Evaluate $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\frac{\sum_{k=1}^n k^m}{n^{m+1}}$ By considering:  $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\sum_{k=1}^n k^1}{n^{2}} = \frac 1 2$$ $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\sum_{k=1}^n k^2}{n^{3}} = \frac 1 3$$ $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\sum_{k=1}^n k^3}{n^{4}} = \frac 1 4$$  Determine if this is true: $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\sum_{k=1}^n k^m}{n^{m+1}} = \frac 1 {{m+1}}$$  If it is, prove it.  If it is not, evaluate $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\frac{\sum_{k=1}^n k^m}{{m+1}}$. How to show that $P(A\cup B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A\cap B)$ Say we have a venn diagram with A on the left, intersection C in the middle and B on the right.   I want to show that $P(A\cup B) = P(A) + P(B)  - P(A\cap B)$  I know what it can be written as A+B+C, but a lot of the proofs  go from:  $P(A\cup B) = P(A) + P(B)  + P(C)$ to  $P(A) + P(B) = P(A\cup B)  + P(C) $  and then rearrange to  get the proof and get $P(A\cup B) =P(A) + P(B)-  P(C) $ . I just don't get how the left side of the inequality get go from $P(A\cup B)$  to $P(A) + P(B)$. Doesn't that only happen if we assume that they are disjoint. In this case, do we assume that they are disjoint? I know how to write the proof but just having a hard time actually understanding it. How to make a particular app the default viewer / editor for ALL its supported file types at once? My Linux Mint 15 install on VirtualBox was working great up until about two days ago, when the updater started throwing a ton of errors and refuses to progress with any apt-get update, apt-get install, or apt-get upgrade.  They are 404 errors on the archive.ubuntu.com site, under the /ubuntu/dists/raring-updates folder. I looked at it, it doesn't exist.  a direct link, which shows there is no raring-updates.  Where has raring-updates gone and what can I do to fix this? Determine the number of ways to colour a 1 by n grid using the colours red and white if an even number of squares are to be coloured red. Find all solutions to the functional equation $f(x) +f(x+y)=y+2 $ How to disable captive portal detection? How to remove exclamation mark on Wi-Fi or signal icon in Lollipop? When connected to the Internet, the system checks if it's in a walled garden, which is simply trying to connect to Google. If it fails, in Android 5, there'll be an exclamation mark on the WiFi icon or signal icon.   In some situations, this is annoying. Say, in China, Google is blocked, the exclamation mark will always be there, which is meaningless.  How can I disable this check, and make the system assume, connected WiFi/mobile data is connected Internet? "He was neither seer nor prophet" How would you explain the absence of an article? Here's a fragment from Jack London's Star Rover:     Wordsworth knew. He was neither seer nor prophet, but just ordinary man like you or any man. What he knew you know, any man knows. But he most aptly stated it in his passage that begins "Not in utter nakedness, not in entire forgetfulness.   To the best of my — admittedly sketchy — knowledge of grammar, the second sentence should read neither a seer nor (a) prophet, but just an ordinary man. Even if we accept the seer and the prophet as "poetic entities" ("father and son," "robber and robbed," "man to man," or whatever), logic would still dictate that ordinary man should be preceded by an an.  It is a well-known fact that Jack London's usage wasn't always up to par; his grammar, on the other hand, was always top-notch.  Logically, the sentence is grammatically incorrect (correct me if I'm wrong: no pun intended).  Illogically, it reads smoothly: intuitively, a native speaker understands that there's nothing wrong here.  However, those to whom English is not the first language cannot be expected to be intuitive in this case and would want an explanation. Any suggestions? Set value of textarea in jQuery I am attempting to set a value in a textarea field using jquery with the following code:  $("textarea#ExampleMessage").attr("value", result.exampleMessage);   The issue is, once this code executes, it is not altering the text in the textarea?  However when performing an alert($("textarea#ExampleMessage").attr("value")) the newly set value is returned? What it says on the tin, a foreign friend of mine has asked and I can't tell him; apart from it sounding horrible.  For example:  "Why is it raining today?"   Instead of:  "Why it is raining today?" Strange black shading. Cannot fully light mesh. (Cycles) Here is the viewport in material view.  The node setup is just a PNG texture into a diffuse shader.    And this is in rendered view.  I've tried using environmental lighting as well as a directional light, and while the lit parts become brighter/washed out, the darker parts stay dark.  Normals are correct and there is no z-fighting.  Ambient Occlusion is not enabled.  Changing to Flat shading makes it worse.    Update:  Any modifier that alters the mesh (bevel, subdivide, etc) make the problem go away instantly. I tried to write out the aura if statement but I am getting stuck if someone can explain it to me in detail. thank you  &lt;aura:if isTrue=&quot;{!lessthan(v.Tl.time, v.Tl.End_Date_Time1__c)}&quot;&gt;                            &lt;/aura:if&gt; Preview Breaks with Invalid Tag Name [tag:+] In the formatted preview for Questions &amp; Answers, typing a tag link with an invalid tag name "crashes" the preview. As soon as you type the following the preview stops updating and an error can be observed in the Javascript console.   [tag:+]   Observed in Safari 7 and Chrome 31.   seems related to the business rule of not allowing certain characters in tags, but it sounds like a different bug. A doubt on the definition of limit of a function definition I want to prove the definition of limit of a function from definition (1) to definition (2).  (1) A function $f(x)$ is said to have $f^*$ as the limit as $x$ tends $x^*$ iff for every sequence $\{x_n\}$ with limit $x^*$, the limit $\lim_{n-&gt;\infty}f(x_n)$ exists and is equal to $f^*$. (2) A function is said to have $f^*$ as the limit as $x$ tends $x^*$ iff for each $\epsilon &gt;0$, there exists a $\delta_\epsilon &gt;0$ such that $|f(x)-f^*| &lt;\epsilon \forall |x^*-x|&lt;\delta_\epsilon$  I am confused about the steps. Suppose I am given an $\epsilon &gt; 0$ and $x^*$. I have to show the existence of a $\delta_\epsilon &gt;0$ such that for all $x$ satisfying  $|x^*-x|&lt;\delta_\epsilon$ I can construct a sequence $x_n$ which converges to $x^*$ and $x_n=x$ for some $n \geq N$. Then I can say that $f(x_n)-f^*=f(x)-f^* &lt; \epsilon$. I think I may have made some mistake about the steps.  My main confusion is the following : Suppose I choose $\delta_\epsilon=\epsilon$. Then if a sequence $\{x_n\}$ converges to $x^*$ then $x_n=x$ (where $x$ satisfies $|x-x^*|&lt;\epsilon$) for some $n\geq N$. Now, $\lim_{n-&gt;\infty}f(x_n)$ exists implies there exists an $M$ such that $\forall n\geq M$, $f(x_n)-f^* &lt;\epsilon$. Now, I need to show that for some $n \geq M$ indeed $x_n=x$. How do I show that ? This $M$ and $N$ are different.