Different render time in preview and final render I'm rendering long animations and it's important to me to save time. In the preview, a frame is rendered in 30 seconds, but if I render the animation, the render time of one frame increases to 2 minutes. Why does this happen and how can I get the final render with time of the preview render?
Why is rendered viewport faster than rendering individual frames? When I'm using rendered viewport it initially takes a while before rendering starts, but once it does, I can freely move around and rendering a new view happens almost instantaneously. When on the other hand I'm rendering a movie, for each frame Blender takes a significant amount of time before rendering even starts, usually doing the following:  Synchronizing object, Updating images, Updating meshes, Updating Scene BVH, Packing BVH,  Why does it do this? And is it possible to disable this to increase movie rendering speed?
From  (emphasis mine):     Neutron degeneracy is a stellar application of the Pauli Exclusion Principle, as is electron degeneracy. No two neutrons can occupy identical states, even under the pressure of a collapsing star of several solar masses. For stellar masses less than about 1.44 solar masses (the Chandrasekhar limit), the energy from the gravitational collapse is not sufficient to produce the neutrons of a neutron star, so the collapse is halted by electron degeneracy to form white dwarfs. Above 1.44 solar masses, enough energy is available from the gravitational collapse to force the combination of electrons and protons to form neutrons. As the star contracts further, all the lowest neutron energy levels are filled and the neutrons are forced into higher and higher energy levels, filling the lowest unoccupied energy levels. This creates an effective pressure which prevents further gravitational collapse, forming a neutron star. However, for masses greater than 2 to 3 solar masses, even neutron degeneracy can't prevent further collapse and it continues toward the black hole state.   How then, can they collapse, without violating the Pauli Exclusion Principle? At a certain point does it no longer apply? What is meant by "obfuscate by pretending"? I came accross the following sentence:  "Politicians obfuscate by pretending that the world would be the same if it weren't for the Cold War."  What is the meaning of obfuscate by pretending and how does it relate to the rest of the sentence?  The way I understood it: politicans are aware that the world would not be the same if it weren't for the Cold War, but are (due to unknown or suspected reasons) not willing to admit this and therefore pretend otherwise. Similar matrices and field extensions Given a field $F$ and a subfield $K$ of $F$. Let $A$, $B$ be $n\times n$ matrices such that all the entries of $A$ and $B$ are in $K$. Is it true that if $A$ is similar to $B$ in $F^{n\times n}$ then they are similar in $K^{n\times n}$?   Any help ... thanks! Meaning of "kernel" In analysis, there are at least three kinds of "" concepts:   In probability theory, there is a concept called , also called probability kernel, from one measure space $X$ to another $Y$. It is actually a family of measures on $Y$, indexed by members of $X$. It can transform a measure on $X$ to a measure on $Y$, in terms of integration.  A special case is  of probability density function in statistics, where the  is actually a probability kernel. In real/complex analysis, there is a concept called  from a product space $X \times Y$ to $\mathbb{R}$ or $\mathbb{C}$. It can transform some special function: $X \to \mathbb{R}$ or $\mathbb{C}$ to another one:$Y \to \mathbb{R}$ or $\mathbb{C}$. This is used for defining integral transformation In Hilbert space theory, there is concept called , which is a family of bounded mappings for a family of Hilbert spaces. For every two Hilbert spaces $X$ and $Y$ in the family, there are exactly two members of the kernel, one mapping from $X$ to $Y$ and the other from $Y$ to $X$.   I wonder    Are they related concepts, since they seem to share some indescribable similarity? Can they be unified?   In particular, the first two are similar to each other as the kernels induce transformations on measures and on functions in terms of integrals.  It is however not obvious to me how the third one, i.e. the Hilbert space one, is related to the second one. Are they related to the  concepts? Or even to the  concept?   I feel like some insights and references for catching the general ideas shared across as many kinds of "kernels" as possible.  Thanks and regards! If $A = \tan6^{\circ} \tan42^{\circ},~~B = \cot 66^{\circ} \cot78^{\circ}$ find the relation between $A$ and $B$ My trigonometric problem is:     If $A = \tan6^{\circ} \tan42^{\circ}$ B = cot$66^{\circ} \cot78^{\circ}$ find the relation between $A$ and $B$.    Working :   $$B = \cot 66^{\circ} \cot78^{\circ} = 1- \frac{\tan24^{\circ}+\tan18^{\circ}}{\tan42^{\circ}}$$  $$A= \tan6^{\circ} \tan42^{\circ} = 1- \frac{\tan6^{\circ} +\tan42^{\circ}}{\tan48^{\circ}}$$  but it seems  this is the wrong way of doing this...please suggest. Thanks! Disabling IPv6 on Mint and Debian How does one disable IPv6 completely (for all interfaces, resp. for the whole machine?  Keep in mind, I don't want any kind of GUI solution.    OS in question:   Linux Mint 18.x Cinnamon 64-bit GNU/Linux Debian 9.x Cinnamon 64-bit How prove this equation $\alpha=\aleph_{0}\alpha$ Question:     let $\alpha$ be a infinite cardinal , show that:   $$\alpha=\aleph_{0}\alpha$$   where $\aleph_{0}$ is the cardinality of the natural numbers is denoted aleph-null   this equation is from a book,and I can't prove it,and the author say this is important equation,and can't prove it.Thank you for you help What is the limit of series $\frac{1}{2 \cdot 3 \cdot 4} + \frac{1}{4 \cdot 5 \cdot 6} + \frac{1}{6 \cdot 7 \cdot 8} + \cdots $?  The $n$th summand is $\frac{1}{(2n)(2n + 1)(2n+2)} = \frac{1}{4} \frac{1}{n(2n+1)(n+1)}$.  I have tried expressing this as a telescoping sum, or as the limit of Riemann sums of a partition (the usual methods I normally try when doing this type of question- what are some other strategies?) How do we see? Where do the photons disappear? I know that the light is reflected from a object to my eyes, but I don't understand exactly how. The photons appear from the light source and disappear in my eye! Can someone explain the phenomenon of where the photons go and do to allow us to see? Determine the Galois group of the polynomial $(x^3-2)(x^3-3)(x^2-2)$ over $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt {-3})$ Determine the Galois group of the polynomial $(x^3-2)(x^3-3)(x^2-2)$ over $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt {-3})$.   I tried to decompose the splitting field into a tower, but then it is very complicated in each step and since the degree is large, I cannot determine the group by guessing. It seems to me that Kummer theory might work, but there are $2$-degree and $3$-degree factors. After cruising through a lot of material online, and answers over here, my understanding of contravariant and covariant vectors are, in a finite-dimensional vector space, suppose we have a vector, which is contravariant to its basis. However, using the metric tensor, we can map this vector to a one form in the dual space, which acts as a vector space for this example. This one form, or covactor, varies similarly to the basis in our original vector space. However, the covectors have a different basis, which is the dual basis, and are expanded in terms of those. Here's where my confusion arises : Many diagrams over the internet give a geometric picture of the scenario, by claiming that contravariant components of an 'arrow' are found by drawing parallel lines along the axes, and checking where they intersect. Co-variant components could be found by sketching the perpendicular lines on these axes. So, these materials are treating covariant and contravariant as different representations of the same arrow, while I'm inclined to believe they are completely different. However, if we let go of rigour, in exchange for a 'more' geometric understanding, I think we are allowed to do this. The diagrams are usually of the form :  However, even if we assume that contravariant and covariant are different representations of the same object, this particular diagram still seems wrong to me. Particularly the locations of $x_1,x_2$. In this diagram, they are located on the span of the original basis. Shouldn't covector components be located on the span of the dual basis ? This diagram suggests to me, that co-variant components have the same basis, as the contravariant ones. Shouldn't the diagram look more like this ?  This second diagram seems to fit the concept better according to me. This is because the dual vector must be 'contravariant' with respect to the 'dual basis'. This means, their components must be found out by sketching parallel lines along the span of the dual basis. These lines intersect the original axis at a right angle, which is to be expected, as dual bases are orthogonal to the original bases. Moreover, this second picture can also show in a much better way, how scaling up of the original basis, scales down the 'contravariant components' and the 'dual basis', which in turn scales up the 'covariant' components.This shows that the components of the dual vector are covariant to the original basis. This is something that is not readily visible in the first diagram. So, am I correct in assuming this second 'geometrical' representation is correct ? I know this doesn't make much sense, because as the mathematicians said, that vectors are completely different from one forms, and one forms should be represented using the number of hyperplanes intercepted by our arrow. However, I've seen most course material refer to it in this way, and frankly it is easier to visualize. However, most of this material used the first picture. Can anyone point out my mistakes, if any, and tell me if the first picture is correct, or the second one ? Or in this case 'less-flawed'. Why won't my YN-568EXII work with a flash trigger? I have a Canon 5DMk2 and have just bought 2 Yongnuo YN568EXII speed lights. I have an existing Yongnuo RF-603CII trigger, but I cannot get them to work together! Does anyone have any suggestions, as the manual is no use :( Thanks Steve Do I have to worry about copyright issues for code posted on Stack Overflow? I was wondering about the copyright of code snippets from answers. Let's say you ask a question and the solution consists of ten lines of code, which are given in an answer. Are there any restrictions about the use of that code?   It seems that the content of this page is under the . So does one have to attribute the author if code is used in an open source project? Can it be legally used in closed source projects at all?  I guess ten lines of code are not really problematic, but is there a critical number of lines? Is is possible to restore the MFT of a NTFS partition after a format? I've searched through several questions but didn't quite find anyone treating mine.  So, I have a 1TB external hard drive I use for backup purposes with only 1 NTFS partition. Today using DiskPart I formated that partition by mistake (who would have thought the disc count started in 0 and not in 1). The complete command I used was:  format recommended override quick label=Windows   So I performed a quick format, and from which I've read after a quick format it's possible to recover the data stored there. Anyway, as soon as I realized it wasn't the partition I wanted to format the one I specified I removed the access to my external drive to minimize possible damages.  Now, the MFT is the metadata part where the file name, creation date, access permissions and contents are registered; and it's mirrored too (so there's a copy of it somewhere in the disk). What I don't know is if a quick format erases that MFT mirror too, I hope not.  I'm running a program to recover files on it but I'll have to save the files to another location (once it's finished scanning, ~12 hours from now) and I don't quite have over 900GB of free storage where to put the data.  I would like to know if there's a program or procedure by which I could restore the old MFT in-place and have all the data that used to be in there accessible once again.  Any help or light you could shed on how to proceed or what programs to use is really appreciated. Run bash script at login stored in the home folder? When I try to load a LaunchAgent plist from launchctl I can't find out how to run a script in the home directory.  My code is:  &lt;?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?&gt; &lt;!DOCTYPE plist PUBLIC "-//Apple//DTD PLIST 1.0//EN" "http://www.apple.com/DTDs/PropertyList-1.0.dtd"&gt; &lt;plist version="1.0"&gt; &lt;dict&gt;     &lt;key&gt;ProgramArguments&lt;/key&gt;     &lt;array&gt;         &lt;string&gt;bash&lt;/string&gt;         &lt;string&gt;~/script.sh&lt;/string&gt;     &lt;/array&gt;     &lt;key&gt;RunAtLoad&lt;/key&gt;     &lt;true/&gt;     &lt;key&gt;Label&lt;/key&gt;     &lt;string&gt;com.tyilo.test&lt;/string&gt; &lt;/dict&gt; &lt;/plist&gt;   I have tried both with and without bash and also replacing ~ with $HOME. I have also tried using bash -c without it working.  The error code is:   `com.tyilo.test: bash: ~/script.sh: No such file or directory` Why is ++i considered an l-value, but i++ is not? Berlin Public Transport Ticket Validity I have purchased an AB zone Berlin 7 day transport ticket and validated it on Sunday 17th April so hopefully it will be valid until Sunday 24th.  I validated the ticket at about 10:00am so I guess 1000 is the time I validated? But what are the numbers 15 and 6 and letters 'So' correspond to? How (if checked by a guard) can they tell if the ticket is valid? And how can I as a customer tell when it is validated to? Uniform vs discrete Gaussian sampling in Ring learning with errors The Wikipedia article on  mentions two methods of sampling "small" polynomials namely uniform sampling and discrete Gaussian sampling. Uniform sampling is clearly the simplest, involving simply uniformly selecting the coefficients from the set of small coefficients, thereby guaranteeing they will be small. However, the articles mention that security proofs rely on discrete Gaussian sampling.  However, I have a bit of difficulty wrapping my head around    Why discrete Gaussian sampling would be better than uniform, security-wise?   I mean, usually uniform is preferable - it maximizes the entropy/information in each sample, making the outcome more unpredictable. I could understand it if the Gaussian sampling technique would somehow serve to avoid (at least with high probability) "weak" parts of the space of outcomes but I have found no information/justification that this is the case.  Another reason I can see why discrete Gaussian might be better is that there is, after all, a chance (albeit a small one) one would select a non-small coefficient, so the space of outcomes is actually larger. However, given that this probability of hitting this extra space is (by design) quite small but also that one would likely immediately reject such a sample (because the algorithm calls for a small polynomial), this seems to be irrelevant.  It is not because I am against discrete Gaussian sampling I just want to understand why it is more secure. Also, I want to understand if it really IS more secure or it is simply easier to prove security in that model. I would actually consider that very interesting if it is the case because it raises the question of why is it easier to prove the security under conditions that are intuitively worse (i.e. discrete Gaussian vs the intuitively better uniform case)? If it is so intuitively clear that uniform sampling is better, surely it must be possible to transform that intuition into a security proof of RWE also under uniform sampling. Otherwise, I would fear the intuition must with high likelihood be wrong or at least dubious. remote ssh tcpdump command, through a gateway, to be opened, in realtime, in Wireshark, on local machine I (Host A - Windows based using plink) am trying to connect to a remote linux server (Host C), through a gateway linux server (Host B), and run this tcpdump on Host C to be piped all the way back to Host A (through Host B I assume), and opened, in real time, with Wireshark on Host A:  Below is what I saw as the command when not using a gateway ("direct remote fetch").  So, how would I make this work going through my gateway host B scenario above?  Host A$ plink.exe -ssh -pw abc123 root@Host C "tcpdump -s0 -U -n -w - -i eth0 not port 22" | "C:\Program Files\Wireshark\Wireshark.exe" -k -i - I have forgotten my ID proof and I'm doing an Indian domestic flight. Can I still fly? I am travelling from Delhi to Indore, a domestic flight. I forgot to take ID proof. Can I still fly?