My IDE is Visual Studio 2017. I am pretty new in C++ programming so I need a help about understanding principles of creating a new C++ project in Visual Studio. So, in my first solo attempt i just chose a empty project option and afther that i chose to add new item and i write this sample code:  #include &lt;iostream&gt; using namespace std;  int main() {      return 0; }   Afther this step and afther steps with compiling, building and a starting without debugging i did not get any message or consol window with time of code execution or option for entering any key for ending. What is needed for getting this kind of information at the end of code?
I'm starting out in Visual C++ and I'd like to know how to keep the console window.  For instance this would be a typical "hello world" application:   int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) {     cout &lt;&lt; "Hello World";     return 0; }   What's the line I'm missing?
Prove that for any piecewise smooth curve it is possible to find the parametrisation For $f$ Riemann integrable prove $\lim_{n\to\infty} \int_0^1x^nf(x)dx=0.$ Suppose $f$ is a Riemann integrable function on $[0,1]$. Prove that $\lim_{n\to\infty} \int_0^1x^nf(x)dx=0.$   This is what I am thinking: Fix $n$. Then by Jensen's Inequality we have $$0\leq\left(\int_0^1x^nf(x)dx\right)^2 \leq \left(\int_0^1x^{2n}dx\right)\left(\int_0^1f^2(x)dx\right)=\left(\frac{1}{2n+1}\right)\left(\int_0^1f^2(x)dx\right).$$Thus, if $n\to\infty$ then $$0\leq \lim_{n\to \infty}\left(\int_0^1x^nf(x)dx\right)^2 \leq 0$$ and hence we get what we want. How correct (or incorrect) is this? Feed randomly gone on SE Android app SE Android App Version: 1.0.84  There is a display issue in the Feed section. The Earlier today, the below sections and the post title are not visible.  There is no exact steps to reproduce. It doesn't happen when the app is initializing. But if you open the Stack Exchange app, navigate to some other apps, then come back after few minutes, I can see this issue (but not all the time).  When the issue is there, if I manually click the Feed option in the navigation sidebar, the display issue is fixed.  I have recorded the issue: Let $m \in \mathbb{Z^+} , n \in \mathbb{Z^+}$ and let $d=\gcd(m,n)$. Prove that  $$ m\mathbb{Z}+n\mathbb{Z}=d\mathbb{Z}. $$  My attempt is use inclusion to show. Let $a \in m\mathbb{Z}+n\mathbb{Z}$. Then we have $a=ms+nt$. Since $d=\gcd(m,n)$, by Bézout's Lemma, we have $d=ms+nt$ for some integers $s$, $n$. Hence, we have $a=ms+nt=d \in d\mathbb{Z}$. Let $a \in d \mathbb{Z}$. Then we have $a=db=msb+ntb \in m\mathbb{Z}+n\mathbb{Z}$. Is my proof valid?  Remark: the following is the part 2 of the question. Prove that $m\mathbb{Z}\cap n\mathbb{Z}=\frac{mn}{d}\mathbb{Z}$. This one I have no idea how to start Do particles ever touch each other during a collision? Tikz: Arrowheads in the center Familiar form of address for a young, subordinate, woman that connotes respect (Female equivalent to 'Son') A(n often male) paternal figure could use the term 'son' in a fatherly way without referring to his biological Son.  Imagine a man has been verbally abused by a customer at work. His manger might say to him:     Come here son, I have something to tell you   about rude customers   Emphasis on the word I want gender-swapped  Is there a feminine equivalent for a subordinate that you respect?   From      son  (sŭn)   n.    1. One's male child.    2. A male descendant.    3. A man considered as if in a relationship of child to parent: a son of the soil.    4. One personified or regarded as a male descendant.    5. Used as a familiar form of address for a young man.    6. Son Christianity The second person of the Trinity.     Is there an equivalent for talking to a woman in a fatherly way?  The equivalent for TFD entry for daughter does not qualify it as 'familiar'        (often capital) a form of address for a girl or woman      Further more often such 'father-daughter' language patterns are negative, dismissive and lack respect. How to fix Footnote position at the bottom of the page \footnote[1]{\nameref*{8.1.16} is an अधिकार सूत्र it goes upto \nameref*{8.3.55}} \&amp; अङ्गाधिकार (अङ्गस्य)\footnote[2]{\nameref*{6.4.1} is an अधिकार सूत्र it goes upto \nameref*{7.4.97}}  I am using footnote as shown above. However the footnote appears to be floating and when I don't have much in the page it appears in the middle of the page. I got by so far with \vspace{} but I think there must be a way to position this at the bottom of the page despite whats in the page. Thanks for your help I am an Australian currently on a Netherlands working holiday visa that ends in May next year. I would like to know if when my visa ends I then get another 90 days just as a regular tourist visa as I would like to do some more travel within Europe when my visa ends before going home to Australia. Negative pressure How is negative pressure created in a fluid system?Isn't it counter intuitive that we are reducing the pressure of a system containing no molecules(zero pressure) to a lower value? on proving bac-cab rule, $\vec{A} \times ( \vec{B} \times \vec{C})= \vec{B} (\vec{A} \cdot\vec{C})- \vec{C}(\vec{A}\cdot\vec{B})$ I noticed something when I was doing a proof of the BAC-CAB rule, and wanted to check if my intuition was correct.   First, when I actually multiplied out $\vec{B} (\vec{A} \cdot\vec{C})-\vec{C}(\vec{A}\cdot\vec{B}) $ I noticed that I got the same thing. That is, the two quantities are equal. This makes sense since they are dot products. But that further implies that the expression goes to zero.  Well, that means that $\vec{A} \times (\vec{B} \times \vec{C})$ would have to be zero too. And when I thought about it it occurred to me that $\vec{B} \times \vec{C}$ describes a vector perpendicular to both B and C; it's orthogonal. But $\vec{A} \times$ (any vector) will describe a vector perpendicular to (any vector) and in this case, that's $\vec{B} \times \vec{C}$. That is going to be parallel with the vector described by $\vec{B} \times \vec{C}$ itself and that further implies that the cross product of the two is equal to zero. Which is equal to the BAC-CAB quantity above.   So, what is the big honking flaw in my reasoning here? :-) ON an American street, but IN a British one. Do the twain ever meet? Installing Nvidia drivers on Red Hat When is $f=\left(\frac{\sqrt{p+4}}{1-p}-1\right)x^5-3x+\ln5$ decreasing $\forall\; x$? When is $$f=\left(\frac{\sqrt{p+4}}{1-p}-1\right)x^5-3x+\ln5$$ decreasing $\forall\; x$?    Diffrentiating: $$f'=5\left(\frac{\sqrt{p+4}}{1-p}-1\right)x^4-3$$ If $f$ is decreasing, $f'&lt;0$: $$5\left(\frac{\sqrt{p+4}}{1-p}-1\right)x^4-3&lt;0\implies x^4&lt;\frac3{5\left(\frac{\sqrt{p+4}}{1-p}-1\right)}$$ Since if $\left(\frac{\sqrt{p+4}}{1-p}-1\right)\to0^+\implies x^4&lt;+\infty$, which holds forallx, So:$$p=\frac{3\pm\sqrt{21}}2$$which doesn't ply with textbook-answer, since it mentions an domain for p. How to eliminate Cycles artifacts with many overlapping volumes? I have encountered an issue with Cycles Volumetrics in a recent scene. I am using Blender 2.72, and both CPU and GPU render options. In both I get a solid black artifact when I have two volumes overlapping, as in this campfire smoke test:    I have a solid cube, with a volume scatter and volume absorption material, duplicated by a particle system. As you can see, when the particles get higher up and farther apart, and are no longer overlapping, the artifacts disappear. How to manually parse a floating point number from a string Why $\lim\limits_{n\to \infty}\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n$ doesn't evaluate to 1? I am trying to identify what the flaw is exactly when reasoning about a limit such as the definition of $\mathbf e$:  $$ \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^n={e} $$  Now, I know there are ways of proving this limit, such as by considering the binomial expansion of $(1+\frac{1}{n})^n$ and comparing that to the Maclaurin series of $e$. So to make this clear, I am not looking for a proof of the limit definition of $e$.  I tried searching for "limit laws/rules" but none of the rules I found described the above case. Hence, I am looking for a specific rule (or perhaps a certain perspective) that will help me realize why the above does not in fact evaluate to 1.  My train of thought is as follows: at a first glance, if I wasn't already familiar with what the limit evaluates to, I probably would evaluate the expression inside the brackets first, and then apply the limit to the power. So, $$\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}=0\quad\text{and then}$$  $$\displaystyle\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}\left(1+0\right)^n=\lim_{n\to\infty}1^n=1$$  Why is my reasoning flawed? Best way to strip punctuation from a string It seems like there should be a simpler way than:  import string s = "string. With. Punctuation?" # Sample string  out = s.translate(string.maketrans("",""), string.punctuation)   Is there? Do I need a Turkey transit visa for a layover? Show that the set $\mathbb{Q}[\sqrt{2}] = \{a + b \sqrt{2} \mid a, b \in \mathbb{Q}\}$ is a field with the usual multiplication and addition.