This is an old SF short story in some collection I read a few decades ago. To the best of my recollection, it's about an anthropologist who's tracing the origin of an invasive civilization that's trying to convert the galaxy to its religion. The punch line is that in the ruins of a museum on the world of origin, he finds a teddy bear, cross-eyed, and realizes the bear's name is "Gladly."  No, this question isn't a troll -- that's my memory of the story. I'm aware of the awful pun; the point of the story was apparently that when you dig into the past, you don't always like what you find.
I read a story--the first part of one, at any rate--years ago, and haven't tracked it down since. It started with a man been sent to a planet under attack to pose as a monk--he arrived in the middle of an assault, but still had to do penance for being late. So he wore a hair shirt, that created an agonising reaction. He was captured by the attackers (who took him for the man he was posing as), who then stood off the planet in their starships and watched as a 'hell burner' weapon tumbled out of deep space and torched the planet. The attackers then explained that they weren't responsible for the hell burner, but every time they arrived at a planet, a hell burner turned up afterwards, at shorter and shorter intervals.  As the story developed, there was some kind of time travelling dimension, and a character turned out to have his organs reversed. I may have got some details wrong, but this was the shape of it.  Anyone know this story, and the author?
Commuting: How to carry office clothing so it doesn't get crushed? I have the bike, I have the best route; but now I want to know, how do I transport my clothing in each day? I typically wear suit pants and a business shirt, but not a suit jacket.   Am I better off leaving my clothes at work, or is there a special bag that would let me carry in shirt/pants without them getting crushed? How do I go about proving this? I know one method is:  $\eqalign{    \cos (90^\circ + \theta ) &amp;\equiv \cos90^\circ \cos\theta  - \sin90^\circ \sin\theta   \cr    &amp;  \equiv (0)(\cos\theta ) - (1)(\sin \theta )  \cr    &amp;  \equiv  - \sin \theta  \cr} $  I'd appreciate others, particularly ones that will allow me to visualize this identity on the unit circle.  Thanks alot. Why do archery arrows tilt downwards in their descent? I have customer data from 2 brands. The data structure are the same, but I expected the customer behaviour to be different in different brand.  So I could train 2 models, 1 for each brand, or I could train one model on both brands, but flag which brand the customers belongs to within the data.  So my question is, would training on both brands with flags be too much more work for the Machine Learning (I'm using neural network), and therefore be harder to achieve good accuracy than to have dedicated models for each brand? Restoring a backup to an older version of SQL Server When trying to restore a backup to a SQL Server Express 2008 database I got the following error:  Restore failed for Server '...\SQLEXPRESS'.  (Microsoft.SqlServer.SmoExtended) System.Data.SqlClient.SqlError: The database was backed up on a server running version 10.50.1600.  That version is incompatible with this server, which is running version 10.00.2531.  Either restore the database on a server that supports the backup, or use a backup  that is compatible with this server. (Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo)   Is there a way to get a backup which is compatible with the older (in my case 10.00.2531) version from the newer (in my case 10.50.1600) version of SQL Server Express? Why square the difference instead of taking the absolute value in standard deviation? In the definition of standard deviation, why do we have to square the difference from the mean to get the mean (E) and take the square root back at the end? Can't we just simply take the absolute value of the difference instead and get the expected value (mean) of those, and wouldn't that also show the variation of the data? The number is going to be different from square method (the absolute-value method will be smaller), but it should still show the spread of data. Anybody know why we take this square approach as a standard?  The definition of standard deviation:  $\sigma = \sqrt{E\left[\left(X - \mu\right)^2\right]}.$   Can't we just take the absolute value instead and still be a good measurement?  $\sigma = E\left[|X - \mu|\right]$ I recently read a lot about neural networks using GRU or LSTM units. There are many easy to use frameworks like tensorflow that do not even require high knowledge about programming. Unfortunately, I never really found good information on how the training of those networks work. Simple backpropagation might probably not work for gated recurrent networks or is just too inefficient for networks with such a high number of variables to learn.  So my question is:  What are the state-of-the-art algorithms used for the initialization and training of neural networks with GRU or LSTM units? I am not looking for frameworks to use, but for initialization and update equations for the internal parameters. Prove: If a sequence converges, then every subsequence converges to the same limit. I need some help understanding this proof:  Prove: If a sequence converges, then every subsequence converges to the same limit.  Proof:  Let $s_{n_k}$ denote a subsequence of $s_n$. Note that $n_k \geq k$ for all $k$. This easy to prove by induction: in fact, $n_1 \geq 1$ and $n_k \geq k$ implies $n_{k+1} &gt; n_k \geq k$ and hence $n_{k+1} \geq k+1$.  Let $\lim s_n = s$ and let $\epsilon &gt; 0$. There exists $N$ so that $n&gt;N$ implies $|s_n - s| &lt; \epsilon$. Now $k &gt; N \implies n_k &gt; N \implies |s_{n_k} - s| &lt; \epsilon$.   Therefore: $\lim_{k \to \infty} s_{n_k} = s$.   What is the intuition that each subsequence will converge to the same limit I do not understand the induction that claims $n_k \geq k$ PDF editing within Apex/Visualforce Prove that there is a bijection between the set of all subsets of $X$, $P(X)$, and the set of functions from $X$ to $\{0,1\}$. Given any set $X$, let $P(X)$ be the set of all subsets of $X$, and let $\{0,1\}^X$ be the set of all functions $X \rightarrow \{0,1\}$. Construct a bijection (and its inverse) between P(X) and $\{0,1\}^X$.    Let us define $f: P(X) \rightarrow \{0,1\}^X$ by $f(\alpha) = g_{\alpha}$ where $\alpha \in P(X)$ and $g_{\alpha} : X \rightarrow \{0,1\}$ is defined by  $$g_{\alpha}(x) =\begin{cases}        1 &amp; x \in \alpha \\       0 &amp; x \in X-\alpha     \end{cases}$$  We need to check if this function is well-defined. Let $\alpha, \beta \in P(X)$. If $\alpha=\beta$, then $\alpha$ and $\beta$ correspond to the same set, and so correspond to the same function since both $g_{\alpha}$ and $g_{\beta}$ send that set to 1 and the ($X-$that set) to 0.   If we have a function $g_{\alpha} \in \{0,1\}$, then $\alpha$ is a set in $X$ that is sent to 1. But since $P(X)$ is the set of all sets of $X$, we must have $\alpha \in P(X)$. So the function is surjective.  Finally, if $g_{\alpha}=g_{\beta}$ then both $g_{\alpha}$ and $g_{\beta}$ send the set $\alpha$ or $\beta$ to 1. So $\alpha$ and $\beta$ must be same set. In other words, the function is injective; and hence bijective.   The inverse function is $f^{-1}: \{0,1\}^X \rightarrow P(X)$ where $f^{-1}(g_{\alpha}) = \alpha$.     Another way to prove this is to first construct the inverse function, show that it is well defined, and then show that $ff^{-1}$ and $f^{-1}f$ are the identity functions, right?  So if we let $g_{\alpha}=g_{\beta}$, then $\alpha=\beta$, because otherwise $g_{\alpha} (\beta)=0$ and $g_{\beta} (\beta)=1$; a contradiction.   Now we have $f \circ f^{-1} (g_{\alpha}) = f(\alpha) = g_{\alpha}$ and $f^{-1} \circ f(\alpha) = f^{-1}(g_{\alpha}) = \alpha$ , and so $f$ and $f^{-1}$ must be bijective. Can you be sued for using publicly used images on a blog without copyright permission? Lets say I write a blog post about the new Batman movie or a the new Grand Theft Auto game and i decide to use the boxart/poster or a wallpaper as the main image for the blog post,  can I be sued for breach of copyright on this image?  Im pretty sure Warner Bros are going to be hunting anyone down even if it is legal, but is this actually legal? If i buy the DVD or Game and take a picture of it, is this my copyright? When a trailer gets released and put on youTube, can i take a screenshot of this video and use this as an image?  It seems people can get rightly screwed for this, so I would like to know where i stand on this sort of thing. Why is channel capacity a factor of bandwidth instead of frequency? I'm trying to understand the concept of capacity for a wireless channel.  Some help would be appreciated.  For a AWGN channel capacity is calculated as:  $$C=B \cdot log_2(1 + S/N)\text{ bits/sec}$$  B = bandwidth.  This is what I don't understand.  Why isn't it a factor of frequency? To me considering bandwidth only makes sense in cases where the system changes frequency.   Bandwidth is the difference between an upper and lower frequency range.  Well, what if I'm using a fixed-frequency signal?  Fupper and Flower would be the same value, right?  So does that mean B=0?  So a fixed frequency signal can't carry any data?  We know that's not true, AM radio does it.  So what am I missing? According to this formula, a fixed-frequency signal would have the same performance regardless of whether it's at high or low frequency.  This makes no sense to me.  For example say my bandwidth is 1Hz at a fixed frequency of 1Hz.  Compare this with a bandwidth of 1Hz at a frequency of 2.4GHz.  It's plainly obvious that I can cram way more bits into 2.4 x 109 cycles/second than I can with just 1/sec.  But according to this formula I can't.  Please help. What about fractional differences?  Waveforms are analog in nature, so we could have a 1Hz signal and a 1.5Hz signal.  Likewise at the high frequency range.  Say 2.4GHz minus 0.5Hz.  There is an infinite amount of space between 1 and 1.5.  Could not 1Hz and 1.001Hz serve as two separate channels?  In terms of practicality I realize this would be difficult, nearly impossible to measure this difference with modern electronics, especially with noise added, but in pure theory you could have two channels.  So in that sense, shouldn't there be an infinite amount of bandwidth between two frequencies?  Or do we only count in 1Hz whole number increments? There is no smallest rational number greater than 2 I have a problem that I am seriously stuck on. I'm not sure what to do I've seen similar proofs online with the least positive rational number but this is apparently different and I'm not sure why.     Prove the statement “There is no smallest rational number greater than 2” by contradiction. Are there any reputable studies on spanking? has a weird case of the mono, while .  Also, that question is missing some content at the end: How can I hire a professor to answer my advanced technical questions in a niche area? In short, How does one go about hiring a professor or someone really well established in their field for a private tutoring session?  I tried looking online but can’t find much, mainly websites for tutors that are practitioners or “experts” as in with with n years of experience at best. This doesn’t cut it at my level as I am a researcher with a PhD and already have published papers on my topic.   However, I am very passionate about my subject and always looking to grow. So I do have questions, very technical (in my case computer science) and would happily pay a fee for consulting with a professor in the field.  Any advice? At which embassy should I apply for a Schengen visa when staying a few days in several countries? I'm planning to go to Germany on Sept 6-8, then Netherlands on Sept 8-11 and exit Switzerland on Sept 11-14.  My question is:  Which embassy do I need to apply for the Schengen visa? The number of days are the same for Netherlands and Switzerland, but I'm planning to apply in Netherlands since it will be my second point of entry. Find all primes $p>2$ for which $x^2+x+1$ is irreducible in $\mathbb{F}_p[x]$ Find all primes $p&gt;2$ for which $x^2+x+1$ is irreducible in $\mathbb{F}_p[x]$   Attempt. Since $x^2+x+1$ is of degree 2, it is reducible iff it has a root in $\mathbb{F}_p$. It has a root in $\mathbb{F}_p$ iff $x^3-1=(x-1)(x^2+x+1)$ has a root other than 1. The latter has a root other than $1$ iff $\mathbb{F}_p$ has elements of order $3$, which happens iff $3\mid |\mathbb{F}_p^{\times}|=p-1$, which happens iff $p\equiv 1\bmod 3$. So $x^2+x+1$ is irreducible iff $p\not \equiv 1\bmod3 $.   I am getting a different answer than my professor, who has $p\equiv 1\bmod 3$. If I am incorrect, were am I going wrong?  Update. Now I am unsure about my own reasoning. What if $1$ is a root of $x^2+x+1$? I don't know why I am considering roots of $x^2+x+1$ other than $1$ when $1$ can be a root. SElinux: allow httpd to connect to a specific port My system is running CentOS 6.4 with apache2.2.15. SElinux is enforcing and I'm trying to connect to a local instance of redis through my python/wsgi app. I get Error 13, Permission denied. I could fix this via the command:  setsebool -P httpd_can_network_connect  However, I don't exactly want httpd to be able to connect to all tcp ports. How can I specify which ports/networks httpd is allowed to connect to? If I could make a module to allow httpd to connect to port 6379 ( redis ) or any tcp on 127.0.0.1, that would be preferable. Not sure why my paranoia is so strong on this, but hey...  Anyone know? I read this recently on the web and can't manage to understand it. Not homework -- I haven't done math homework for years.  If $d\mid ab$ then $d=d_1 d_2$, that $d_1|a$, that $d_2|b$ and, further, if $(a,b)=1$ then $(d_1,d_2)=1$.  I know it's the same question... if $a = a_1 a_2 ... a_n$, why can't $d$ divide some $a_i$ and only $a_i$?