I'm starting on mono blue mill deck and I saw . I'm not sure about its ability.     {tap}: put a charge counter on Grindclock      {tap}: target player puts the top X cards of his or her library into his or her graveyard, where X is the number of charge counters on Grindclock.   If I just cast  and use its first ability, will the second ability take effect, or do I just put a charge counter on it? If there's already one charge counter on it and I use the first ability again, it will have two charge counters on it? Then the second ability will take effect with two cards being sent to graveyard?  If I use spells or ability to untap it after being used can I use its ability again on the same turn?
Say I have a Zombie token, , and  on the battlefield. Can I sacrifice the Zombie token to activate both the Altar's and Seer's abilities?  Similarly, if I have one card in hand, and  and  on the battlefield can I discard the one card to both of their abilities?  If I have a  with 3 charge counters can I activate both of its abilities by tapping it to add a counter, and tapping it to remove 3 counters and destroy a permanent without untapping it in between?
Find the first occurrence/starting index of the sub-array in C# A friend of mine was trying to explain to me how all infinities are equal. For example, they were saying that there are the same amount of numbers between $0$–$1$ as there are between $0$–$2$.  The way they explained it, you could prove that there are the same amount of numbers by getting a match to each number.  For example, for any number in the range from $0$–$2$, you can find a matching number in the range $0$–$1$ by dividing the number by 2. In every case, the ending number will end up between $0$–$1$. In addition, if you multiplied any number in the range of $0$–$1$ by 2, you will always end up with a number between $0$–$2$ Therefore, there should be the same infinite amount of numbers between  $0$–$1$ as there are between $0$–$2$.  Is this principle accurate? The problem that I had with it was, if in-fact there are the same amount of numbers between 0 and 1 as there are between 0 and 2, why is 2 greater than 1? 12 hours delay with ATmega16A I am trying to turn on a LED for 5sec every 12 hours. I tried:  #include &lt;mega16.h&gt; #include &lt;delay.h&gt;  void main(void) {     DDRC.0 = 1;     PORTC.0 = 0;      while(1)     {              unsigned long i;        unsigned long j;        PORTC.0=1;         for(i=1; i&lt;432; i++)        {              delay_ms(100);          }         PORTC.0 = 0;         for(j=1; j&lt;100; j++)        {            delay_ms(50);          }     } }   but the LED was on for about 2 hour every week. I once heard the late John Ciardi (NPR's "A Word in Your Ear") try to explain that the 1920s idiom, "copacetic" (meaning completely satisfactory), entered into the African-American vocabulary in Harlem from the days when Jews and African Americans lived there together.  He argued that copacetic has the same meaning as the Israeli idiom "kol b'seder" which literally means "all is in order."  The problem with that, said my Harlem-raised father-in-law, is that the Jews in Harlem spoke Yiddish and kol b'seder was not used in Yiddish.  The dictionary I've got is not helpful. Can someone come up with a better explanation? Page 105 of D. Burton's A First Course in Rings and Ideals reads     It is not difficult to show that if (I'll call them $n$ and $m$ instead of $n_1$ and $n_2$) $n$, $m$ are square free integers, then $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{n}) \cong \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{m})$ if and only if $n=m$.   Well, it is getting difficult for me, any help or would be appreciated.    My progress so far: Suppose $\phi :\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{n})\to\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{m})$ is an isomorphism. Then $\phi(u)=u$ for every $u \in \mathbb{Q}$, so that $\phi(\sqrt{n})^2=\phi(n)=n$. If $\phi(\sqrt{n})=a+b\sqrt{m}$ for some $a,b\in\mathbb{Q}$, then $(a+b\sqrt{m})^2=a^2+b^2m + 2ab\sqrt{m}=n$ implies $$a^2+b^2m = n$$ and $$2ab=0.$$  Then $b=0$ cannot happen since that would imply that $\sqrt{n}\in\mathbb{Q}$, where $n$ is a square-free integer. Also $a=b=0$ cannot happen. Hence $a=0$ and we have $$b^2m=n.$$ If $\psi:\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{n})\to\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{m})$ were an isomorphism then there would exist some $s\in\mathbb{Q}$ such that $$s^2m=n,$$ then $s=b$ or $s=-b$. Therefore the only isomorphisms from $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{n})$ to $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{n})$ are $\phi(u+v\sqrt{n})=u+vs\sqrt{m}$ and $\psi(u+v\sqrt{n})=u-vs\sqrt{m}$.    I don't know if there's an easier way and I don't know if I'm in the correct way here. Thanks beforehand :) What's using up my disk space? My Vista 64 installation has drive C, a 150 GB hard drive.  I also has a 1.5 TB drive D.  My C drive has 12.3 GB free.  I don't know what's using up all the space.  There's almost 83 GB unaccounted for!!!  As per  question and  question, I downloaded  and .  WinDirStat, once I found the right options, tells me there's 82.9 GB of .  SpaceMonger, which has a particularly nice display of the data, tells me there's 82.3 GB "Unscanned", with 2 unscannable folders.  Where do I turn now?  Both tools roughly agree there's a large amount of data on my drive, but neither seem to be able to tell me what.  I've tried the standard approach; disk cleanup, remove hibernation file, set the virtual memory to the D drive instead of the C drive. Do I lose anything converting to DNG? I'd like to convert all my ARW (Sony) files to DNG for several reasons, but the only thing keeping me back from doing it is the fear of losing useful metadata during the conversion. I know that the image it's self is completely safe during the conversion but what about proprietary maker noteS? Will those stay too? And even if they do, are they actually useful and can be actually used by something other then Sony's own RAW converter?  P.S. I'm using Ubuntu so I'd prefer to use KipiPlugins' DNG converter because from what I understand it does everything the Adobe converter does, but if I'm wrong I can use Adobe's instead.  EDIT:  It looks like the LensID does carry over! With the ARW and the DNG files converted by Kipiplugins' built in converter, info is stored as "Exif.Sony.0x___". With Adobe's official converter, it moves the info to more logically named fields in the XMP, such as "LensID" and "Lens".  Now that I've figured it out, I think I might use Adobe's Official converter, just because I prefer how it reorganizes the Exif Data.  I'm not fully convinced though and I'd like to hear others take on all this. How to split by commas that are not within parentheses? MacBook Pro never goes to sleep Raster calculator reclass 0 as 0 QGIS I want to process a raster with values 0-16. I want to set all values between 1 and 15 as 1, a value of 16 as 0 and cells with a value of 0 as 0.   How do I maintain a cell value of 0?  I have tried the following:  ("raster_name@1" !=0 AND "raster_name@1" &lt;= 15*1)+("raster_name@1" = 16*0)   Results in: Values of 16 as 0, values 1-15 as 1, values 0 also = 1  I also tried:  ("raster_name@1" !=0 AND "raster_name@1" &lt;= 15*1)+("raster_name@1" 16*0)+("raster_name@1" = 0*0)   Results in: Values of 16 as 0, values 1-15 as 1, values 0 = 2  Please, can you explain how to retain cells with a 0 value as 0? Digging in deeper to Javascript Remoting and I'm a bit confused.  The  starts off by showing how to set up everything and uses code like the following:  function getRemoteAccount() {     var accountName = document.getElementById('acctSearch').value;      // This remoting call will use the page's timeout value     Visualforce.remoting.Manager.invokeAction(         '{!$RemoteAction.AccountRemoter.getAccount}',         accountName,          handleResult     ); }   However, I've also seen examples where Visualforce.remoting.Manager.invokeAction is never called.  They end up looking something like the following:  function getText() {   var text = "";   JSRemotingBasicsController.doGetText(     function(result, event) {       // do something here     }   ); }   I'm wondering what is the point to using Visualforce.remoting.Manager.invokeAction when you can just reference the RemoteAction directly like the second example?  Is there something I'm missing?  Is there a time where the second example doesn't work? Series with denominator that is square of product of consecutive numbers Reprojecting LiDAR data with libLAS, error: "latitude or longitude exceeded limits"? Looking at the following dataset:   Date        Visits   Carts      carts       Orders                       Created   converted    Created 2011-11-11    12277     161        9          36   2011-11-12    11871     93         5          19     2011-11-13    13072     107        8          8      2011-11-14    13594     112        4          34     2011-11-15    12741     129        8          43     2011-11-16    15491     261        16         57  2011-11-17    13418     186        17         42       I've been asked to plot this on a graph, using the Date has the X-Axis and the rest of the data on the Y-Axis. The problem is that the scale of the data is dramatically different. where Visits are in the thousands and Orders Created are in the low tens, the data doesn't plot well on a graph.     I was wondering what a statistician would do in this scenario, I could divide the the Visits by a 1000 and then put in the description (Visits (K)), but then I start to have the same problem with Carts Created, as they are in the hundreds and everything else is in the low tens.  What kind of thing is done in this scenario? Is it possible for more than two particles to be entangled in a quantum way? So I know that two particles can be entangled in a quantum way, but is it possible that more than two particles be entangled in a quantum way? Most descriptions provide with two-particles cases, so I wonder. (It's hard to think of three particles entangled in spin, or so.) What’s the real-world origin of the name Azor Ahai? Azor Ahai is some mythical hero, who may or may not coincide with other mythical heros that are supposed to be born and save us from the eternal night (which is dark and full of terrors, if we are to believe Melisandre).  But I'm interested in the origins of the name, here, in our world. More specifically because in Hebrew "Azor Ahai" means (albeit ungrammatically) "Help my brothers", or if you transliterate it differently you'd get "The Living Help".   Since writers often take meaningful names to be terms from other languages (and mangle them a bit), I can't help but wonder Did GRRM reveal the origin of the name "Azor Ahai" at some point? Why are there so many places to put a binary in Linux? There are at least these five:   /bin/ /sbin/ /usr/bin/ /usr/local/bin/ /usr/local/sbin/   And on my office box, I do not have write permissions to some of these.  What type of binary goes into which of these bins? Set of branch points isn't discrete, but branch points are isolated? I refer to , which I understand says that the branch points of a nonconstant holomorphic map $F: X \to Y$ between Riemann surfaces $X$ and $Y$, both of which are not necessarily compact, form a discrete subset of range $Y$ of the map $F$. (Not sure if 'connected' is part of the definition of Riemann surfaces in other textbooks, but it is here.) Question 1: Do I understand correctly, and is this indeed true? What else I understand:  $A$ is a discrete subspace/subset (I just assume everything here is the usual subspace topology) of $B$ if and only if every singleton subset of $A$ is open in $A$ if and only if every point of $A$ is isolated.  This overflow question () seems to suggest this is not true but is true if $F$ is proper. However, I'm not sure the definitions of Riemann surface are the same (maybe some answers use definitions where Riemann surfaces are not necessarily connected or something).  2.1. I know $F$ is 'discrete' (meaning that its fibres are discrete; here, i refer to a ): see definition before Lemma 3.1, on p. 7), by Proposition II.3.12, and open, by open mapping theorem, which is Proposition II.3.8, but I'm not sure these help show $F$ is proper or are otherwise helpful. Ostensibly 'discrete' maps don't map discrete subsets to discrete subsets.   This stackexchange question () seems to suggest this is true.  I think this is true if $F$ is injective or at least something like locally injective. (Please don't make me type up all the stuff I did for this part.) However based on the question in (3) and based on the , which I think uses the term 'branch points' to mean the same thing as what Miranda means by 'ramification points' (and thus is different from Miranda's 'branch points'), it seems that no neighbourhood $U$ of a ramification point $p \in U \subseteq X$ of $F$ is such that the restriction $F|_U$ is injective.  Kinda related:    This page () says    Now, the ramification and branch points must form a discrete set  I don't think the page assumes anything like $F$ is proper.  The  text in (2.1) actually seems to assume proper based on the '3.7. Proper holomorphic maps' part, but said part refers to 'Lemma 3.17', so I think proper can be replaced with closed. Maybe $F$ is closed or something.  Kinda related (see Question 2 below):     says    If $F$ is proper then the image $\Delta = F(R)$ is discrete in $Y$.   This seems to have all the same assumptions as with Miranda. Ostensibly, either Miranda is wrong or there's some higher level machinery that allows us to omit $F$ proper.  Question 2: To possibly generalise this, what are the minimum requirements on $F, X$ and $Y$ to make $F$ map discrete subsets to discrete subsets? I mean, I'm not sure we really need 'holomorphic' here. I have a feeling this applies perhaps to maps that are just open/closed, continuous and discrete and spaces that are just Hausdorff and locally compact or something.  (again) Kinda related: Let $X\subset \mathbb{R}$ Lebesgue measurable, $|X|<|\mathbb{R}|$, is it true that $X$ is null? Let $X\subset \mathbb{R}$ Lebesgue measurable, $|X|&lt;2^{\aleph_0}$, is it true that $X$ is null?  Of course I am not assuming the Continuum Hypothesis.   EDIT: It might be helpful to know that all Borel measurable sets have cardinality either $\aleph_0$ or $2^{\aleph_0}$. Then a measurable set of cardinality strictly between those two must be Lebesgue but not Borel measurable. How can I overwrite/print over the current line in Windows command line? On Unix, I can either use \r (carriage return) or \b (backspace) to overwrite the current line (print over text already visible) in the shell.  Can I achieve the same effect in a Windows command line from a Python script?  I tried the curses module but it doesn't seem to be available on Windows.