Most articles and books are written in the conventional fonts like Computer Modern Roman, Times New Roman, etc. which are similar to each others. Why aren't more fonts used?   I wrote my course this year in a cursive font and it didn't cause any problem to any students. I'm afraid however that if I do the same in an article, the article will be ignored. Would you take an article written in such a font seriously? Would you even read it?  A sample of unconventional fonts:
I looked around but did not find that anyone has asked this before, but what are the fonts that are standard/recommended while writing academic reports/papers?
Does the rotation of the earth dramatically affect airplane flight time? Say I'm flying from Sydney, to Los Angeles (S2LA), back to Sydney (LA2S).  During S2LA, travelling with the rotation of the earth, would the flight time be longer than LA2S on account of Los Angeles turning/moving away from our position?  Or, in the opposite direction, would the flight to Sydney be faster since the Earth turns underneath us and moves Sydney closer?  ===   Please ignore jet stream effects and all other variables; this is a control case in an ideal environment. By "dramatically" I suppose I mean a delay of 1 hour or more. Legal issues for a "fangame" of a commercial franchise? I've played around in the past of the 2D Flash fan-made version of the popular Valve game Portal.  It has basically the exact same mechanics, but as a 2D side-view flash game.  Lately I've toyed around with creating a simplified flash version of some of my favorite franchises (such as Zelda, Mario, Splinter Cell, etc.).  Of course, nothing is "stopping" me from just using the same mechanics and just changing the name to something not copyrighted.  I have witnessed projects that have tried to directly port a 3D game into a 2D simplified version, with the exact same plot and puzzles (Ocarina of Time in 2D comes to mind), and I have seen them being shut down.  But I am not likely going to exactly duplicate any game...just borrow some of the source material and basic underlying mechanics.  For example, if I were to make a Zelda-influenced fan game, I would have items such as the Hookshot, Boomerang, and all other sorts of ones from the Gameboy Zeldas; just with a custom plot and dungeons.  With likely the same mechanics.  What are the legal issues involved in this?  I used to think it was a "Don't do this ever; it's a bad idea."  But then I've seen the Portal clone, and now I'm curious. Multiplying by a $1\times 1$ matrix? For matrix multiplication to work, you have to multiply an $m \times n$ matrix by an $n \times p$ matrix, so we have $$\bigg(m \times n\bigg)\bigg(   n\times p \bigg).$$  But what about a $1 \times 1$ matrix? Is this just a scalar? But every matrix can be mulitplied by a scalar; so do $1 \times 1$ matrices break the rule? I have video tutorials that I want to show in my presentation with beamer class. I don't want the video files get embedded to the PDF because they will make the PDF size very very huge.  If you know how the videos can be played on the HTML with a reference rather than embedding the video file to the HTML file, I want something like this to be applied to my PDF presentation. I just want to reference the video URL from my PDF presentation.   Shortly speaking, can we use media9 to show a video on a PDF but the video is not embedded to the PDF?  Uploading those videos to a web server might be difficult for me because internet connection is very slow and sometimes not available in the presentation room. :-) What to do when visa admission expires during lockdown? How do I wrap a macro definition in an environment? I have    iPhone 5 (with iOS 8.3) MacBook Pro Early 2013 (with OS X Yosemite 10.10.3) iPad Air (with iOS 8.3)   My iPhone is paired with the MacBook, so e.g when my phone rings, I can see it in my computer. But when I want to AirDrop photos from my iPhone the MacBook, then I can't see the MacBook in my iPhone AirDrop targets.  I can see the iPad, I can see my wife's iPhone, but not the MacBook.  On MacBook, I can see the iPad, my wife's phone and even my iPhone and I can drop to there, but not the other way around.  Before I started troubleshooting, the iPhone and MacBook were mutually invisible (I only saw iPad from both). After a while of trying things and sending files back and forth, my MacBook started to see the iPhone, but I did not manage to make it work from the other way. Still, the iPhone seems to be much "less" visible than the iPad - which I see almost instantly and always, the iPhone only seems to appear after a while.  Just to make it clear:   both iPhone and MBP have BT turned on both have AirDrop visibility set to Everyone   I would be glad for any suggestions to fix this - what settings to check, logs, whatever. How to provide translations for a WordPress TinyMCE plugin? I know that I can get my translations into JavaScript doing:      $MyTranslations = array(         'translation1' =&gt; __("Some String 1", "MyTranslations"),         'translation2' =&gt; __("Some String 2", "MyTranslations")     );     wp_localize_script( 'jquery', 'my_translations', $MyTranslations );   But looking at some of WordPress TinyMCE plugins they use calls like this:  { title : ed.getLang('advlink.link_desc'), ... }   How is WordPress getting their translations into getLang()? Am I supposed to do it this way or do I just use my first bit of code and access the variables directly like:  { title : my_translations.translation1, ... } What purpose does downvoting questions serve? I've just got my first follower, and I'm wondering if I can get a second person to follow me. Is the game limited to one or two follower(s) or does it allow for a large number of followers? It really seems handy to me to have some followers protect me when I draw attention from a larger group, or when I try to steal something where I really shouldn't... Find four groups of order 20 not isomorphic to each other and prove why they aren't isomorphic.   So far I thought of $\mathbb Z_{20}$, $\mathbb Z_2 \oplus\mathbb Z_{10}$, and $D_{10}$ (dihedral group), but I can't find another one. Would $U(50)$ work? I know it has order 20 and is cyclic but I'm not exactly sure how to move from there. Can someone to point me on the right direction? Uniform convergence on two separate intervals Test the sequence of functions for uniform convergence       $$f_n(x)=\frac{nx}{1+n^2x^2}$$      $a) \text{on} \ [0,1]$      $b) \text{on} \ [1,{\infty})$   a)  If we differentiate this with respect to x we get the following :  $$(\frac{nx}{1+n^2x^2})'=\frac{n(1-n^2x^2)}{(1+n^2x^2)^2}$$  This is equal to $0$ for $x=^{+}_{-}\frac{1}{n}$  From here we can either check these two values in the original function and take the larger one as the supremum or we can find the second derivative and check whether it's negative. In either case we find that for $x=\frac{1}{n}$ we get the value $f_n(x)=\frac{1}{2}$ and for $x=-\frac{1}{n}$ we get $f_n(x)=-\frac{1}{2}$. Note that $x=-\frac{1}{n}$ doesn't even belong in our interval. Now we can finish the problem.  $$\lim_{n\to \infty}{\frac{nx}{1+n^2x^2}}=0$$  So it is piecewise converging to $f(x)=0$  $$\lim_{n\to \infty}\sup{\left \lvert{f_n(x)-f(x)}\right \rvert}=\lim_{n\to \infty}{\frac{n\frac{1}{n}}{1+n^2 \frac{1}{n^2}}}=\frac{1}{2}$$  So $f_n(x)$ does not convergence uniformly on $[0,1]$ to $f(x)=0$  b)  Now we need to test the on the interval $[1,\infty)$.From the first derivative we notice that if $x\in [1,\infty)$ then the numerator seems to be negative for all $x&gt;1$. So $f_n(x)$ is monotonically decreasing. That means that the supremum will be at the first point of the interval or $x=1$. Taking the limit :  $$\lim_{n\to \infty}{\frac{n}{1+n^2}}=0$$  We can see that the function convergences uniformly on this interval.  Is there something wrong with either of these solutions?  I'm having doubts mostly about the second interval since $x=\frac{1}{n}$ is a supremum but only for $n=1$. However I believe that we need to have the supremum that's satisfied for all $n \in N$. Pointing even the tiniest mistake in my solutions would be very helpful. Thank you. 301 redirect blogspot to an existing domain? Is it possible to redirect a blogspot site to an existing URL?  Note that I don't want to buy a new domain and tell blogspot to use that, eg as per this question: .    Instead I am trying to 301 redirect to an existing website in order to combine the website and the blog in one place.  So it needs to be:  301 example.blogspot.com/post to example.com/blog/post Create a directly-executable cross-platform GUI app using Python Integral $\int^{ \pi /2}_{0} \ln (\sin x)\ dx$ $$\int^{ \pi /2}_{0} \ln (\sin x)\  dx$$  The answer is $- \frac{\pi}{2} \ln 2$.  I have changed it into $$\frac{1}{2} \int^{1}_{0} t d \ln t^{2}$$  But I didn't get the answer with it. How to participate in clan war instead of being a spectator I joined a new clan and now that the clan war has started I tried to attack but it says "Spectator can't attack". How do I get out of being a spectator (I haven't used either of my 2 attacks in the war). I went to the clan castle and the clan option and I selected "Yes I'll participate in this war" but nothing happens. When & how did Yoda come to know about the Rule of Two? Partial Sums of Geometric Series This may be a simple question, but I was slightly confused.  I was looking at the second line $S_n(x)=1-x^{n+1}/(1-x)$.  I was confused how they derived this.  I know the infinite sum of a geometric series is $1/(1-x)$.  I just can't figure out how the partial sums, $S_n(x)$, have $1-x^{n+1}$ on the numerator.  How was this derived?  Thank you.     Example 5.20.   The geometric series   $$     \sum_{n=0}^\infty x^n   = 1 + x + x^2 + x^3 + \dotsb $$   has partial sums   $$     S_n(x)   = \sum_{k=0}^n x^k   = \frac{1 - x^{n+1}}{1 - x} \cdotp $$   Thus, $S_n(x) \to 1/(1-x)$ as $n \to \infty$ if $|x| &lt; 1$ and diverges if $|x| \geq 1$, meaning that   $$     \sum_{n=0}^\infty x^n   = \frac{1}{1-x}   \qquad   \text{pointwise on $(-1,1)$}. $$   (Original image .) Why is it string.join(list) instead of list.join(string)? Let $f$ be a continuous function. If $f$ is uniformly continuous then it maps cauhy sequence into cauchy sequence. Is the converse true? That is if $f$ maps cauchy into cauchy gives the uniform continuity of $f$. I think it's no. Can suggest a counter example