I have taken a look through many other questions on this subject but cannot seem to fix my issue. Essentially while references display correctly I cannot get the author citation to appear in my text despite running pdflatex followed by bibtex followed by two more runs of pdflatex. Any help would be appreciated.  Sample tex file:  \documentclass{article} \usepackage{natbib}  \begin{document}  Blahblahblah \citet*{Test12}.  \bibliographystyle{plain} \bibliography{refs}  \end{document}   refs.bib:  @article{Test12, author = "John Smith", title = "Test Article", year = "2012", journal = "The Test Journal" }   Output:
I would like to show the author names using \citet but I get just the reference number. Here is a minimal code:  \documentclass{report} \usepackage[utf8]{inputenc} \usepackage[english]{babel} \usepackage{natbib}  \begin{document}   The author \citet{toschi09} has shown that ..  \bibliographystyle{plain} \bibliography{foo}  \end{document}   And here is foo.bib  @article{toschi09, author = {Toschi, F. and Bodenschatz, E.}, title = {Lagrangian Properties of Particles in Turbulence}, journal = {Annual Review of Fluid Mechanics}, volume = {41}, number = {1}, pages = {375-404}, year = {2009},  }   What I get is:     The author (author?) [1] has shown that ..   Any help will be more than welcome, thank you!
How does searching a file (locate) or autocompletion work? I am a Windows user and coming from Windows with all the indexing and eternal wait times when searching for files, I find it surprising how fast does locate work or the autocompletion (that I know) work in linux.  Is there any indexing being done in the background or how is this achieved? I still have a pretty clean installation, so maybe this goes bad with time, but in Windows the moment you want to search on a folder which is not indexed you have to wait for some seconds. How can friction do no work in case of pure rolling? I have read various answers , on PSE and elsewhere , and most of them explain that the point of contact of the rolling object undergoes 0 instantaneous displacement in the direction of friction, I agree , but then there is a feeling that the friction does provide a torque , so how can it do 0 work . ( The pure rolling here is under a constant external force on the object so friction does act ). How can I prove that prove $n^5 - n$ is divisible by $30$? I took $n^5 - n$ and got $n(n-1)(n+1)(n^2+1)$ Now, $n(n-1)(n+1)$ is divisible by $6$. Next I need to show that $n(n-1)(n+1)(n^2+1)$ is divisible by $5$. My guess is using Fermat's little theorem but I don't know how. What potions actually grant fame or glory, or put a stopper in death? Are there any? ‘You are here to learn the subtle science and exact art of potionmaking,’ [Snape] began. He spoke in barely more than a whisper, but they caught every word – like Professor McGonagall, Snape had the gift of keeping a class silent without effort. ‘As there is little foolish wand-waving here, many of you will hardly believe this is magic. I don’t expect you will really understand the beauty of the softly simmering cauldron with its shimmering fumes, the delicate power of liquids that creep through human veins, bewitching the mind, ensnaring the senses ... 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For example, "dude," "man," "buddy," "pal," etc, when used to stand in for someone's name.  "Hey, pal, how's it going?"  Is there a word for terms like these?  Or is "colloquialism" as close as we can get? Which of these two is more correct and why?   The sun shines on my little tree. The sun shines upon my little tree.   From what I've read in dictionaries both are acceptable, however I would like to know if there are subtleties that might arise due to, for example, the context. How to prove $\sum_{k=1}^{n}F_k = F_{n+2}-1$ by induction when $F_n$ is the Fibonacci sequence Let $F_n$ be the Fibonacci sequence where  $F_0$ = 0  , $F_1$ = 1 and  $F_n$ = $F_{n-1}$ + $F_{n-2}$.                   I want to prove the following by induction. $$\sum_{k=1}^{n}F_k = F_{n+2}-1$$ Here is what I have so far.  Can anybody tell me if I am right?  Base case = n=1  $F_k$ = 1 = LHS  $F_{1+2}$ - 1 = 2 - 1 = 1 = RHS  Statement is true for n=1.  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I am used to the fact that LaTeX will only know letters like ä, ö, ü, or ß if I use packages like  \usepackage{ucs} \usepackage[utf8x]{inputenc} \usepackage[T1]{fontenc}   Today, I tried LaTeX on a Mac for the first time, using the MacTeX distribution and texmaker. Without writing down any packages, all umlauts and ß were accepted correctly from scratch. Why is that and will the usage of special letters without using the packages cause any problems? Change .jpg quality of terminal screenshots We have two PHP5 objects and would like to merge the content of one into the second. There are no notion of subclasses between them so the solutions described in the following topic cannot apply.    //We have this: $objectA-&gt;a; $objectA-&gt;b; $objectB-&gt;c; $objectB-&gt;d;  //We want the easiest way to get: $objectC-&gt;a; $objectC-&gt;b; $objectC-&gt;c; $objectC-&gt;d;   Remarks:   These are objects, not classes. The objects contain quite a lot of fields so a foreach would be quite slow. 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For the last two days, I have been experimenting as instructed by  and mimicked some symbols came bundled with qgis that have desired attributes without any success.  Finally I experimented with the simplest form of symbol: I created an svg that contains only a circle in Inkscape and tried to modify it.  The original file () have this line:  &lt;path    sodipodi:type="arc"    style="fill:#ffffff;fill-opacity:1;stroke:#000000;stroke-width:1.01988637;stroke-miterlimit:4;stroke-opacity:1;stroke-dasharray:none"   I modified it into:  &lt;path    sodipodi:type="arc"    style="fill:param(fill) #ffffff;fill-opacity:1;stroke:param(outline) #000000;stroke-width:param(stroke-width) 1.01988637;stroke-miterlimit:4;stroke-opacity:1;stroke-dasharray:none"   Saved as  and selected it as point symbol, but Qgis couldn't change all three parameters at the same time.  What did I do wrong or should do differently?  My system: Qgis 1.8.0 on Ubuntu 12.04 64 bit, Inkscape 0.48, Gedit 3.4.1 text editor. In Star Trek, does the original die in teleportation? I am just curious.  If I am teleported is the original me dead and the teleporter just makes another copy of me there[at destination]?