I want to be able to control the master volume (not for an application, but for the current active speaker) in Python. This seems to be a tricky topic; I tried doing it in C# but I couldn't even get it to work there. Is there a way to accomplish this? (Windows 7 x64)  Please note that this question has not been answered before since my question is specifically about Python. Also, the project VonC is referring to there does't work on Windows 7.
How can I change the master volume level? Using this code  [DllImport ("winmm.dll")] public static extern int waveOutSetVolume (IntPtr hwo, uint dwVolume);  waveOutSetVolume (IntPtr.Zero, (((uint)uint.MaxValue &amp; 0x0000ffff) | ((uint)uint.MaxValue &lt;&lt; 16)));   I can set the wave volume but if the master volume is too low this won't have any effect.  Thanks for any help.
It didn't fixed the error. So, how do I fix my GUI update?  For every software I have to install it from command line because I got same error when install software from Ubuntu Software Center. Google Image Search using Android I have an image on my smartphone and I want to paste it into Google Image Search to see if I can get similar images.  I can do this by pasting the image using desktop but not using Android ...  Is there such a possibility? Is there any explanation for why the other 2 schools in the TriWizard tournament are both single-gender, unlike Hogwarts?  Was single-gender education normal in wizarding world with Hogwarts being the exception?  Was this some special intentional literary trick on Rowling's part or on movie creators'?    Here's the evidence from the movies:  Durmstrang Institute is boys-only:    Beauxbatons Academy of Magic seems to be an all-girl school: The arithmetic - geometric mean inequality states that $$\frac{x_1+ \ldots + x_n}{n} \geq \sqrt[n]{x_1 \cdots x_n}$$ I'm looking for some original proofs of this inequality. I can find the usual proofs on the internet but I was wondering if someone knew a proof that is unexpected in some way. e.g. can you link the theorem to some famous theorem, can you find a non-trivial geometric proof (I can find some of those), proofs that use theory that doesn't link to this inequality at first sight (e.g. differential equations …)?  Induction, backward induction, use of Jensen inequality, swapping terms, use of Lagrange multiplier, proof using thermodynamics (yeah, I know, it's rather some physical argument that this theorem might be true, not really a proof), convexity, … are some of the proofs I know. Does the potential energy of a single object exist? I know that potential energy exists for a system of objects. But why? Is there no potential energy for a single object system? I assume that there is.  Consider the earth-object system. Suppose an external force lifts the object above the earth. Then the work done by it gets stored in the earth-object system as potential energy.Right?  Now, my question is that is the potential energy always zero for a single object system.   MY REASONING  If we consider the object only as the system and lift it above the Earth, we are doing positive work on it and filling it with energy and the gravitational field of the Earth is doing negative work on it and draining it of energy. Thus whenever the object is moving it has kinetic energy which is fine. But when it is not moving,i.e. when its weight is equal to the force applied by us, the net work done is zero and so the object should not have any kinetic energy. Does it have potential energy? Showing that $\lnot Q \lor (\lnot Q \land R) = \lnot Q$ without a truth table I've done a truth table after reducing it to this and it seems to be equal to $\neg Q$:  $$\lnot Q \lor (\lnot Q \land R) = \lnot Q$$  But when I try to show it without a truth table (with just transformations), I end up in a loop between that and:  $$\lnot Q \land (\lnot Q \lor R)$$  Is there a way to show this is true without using a truth table? What am I missing?!  Thanks in advance! Z-axis issue with the floating review info panel, permits various elements to flow over it Minipage: 2 tables side by side isn't working I have the following code to layout two tables side by side:  \begin{minipage}{0.3\textwidth} \begin{tabular}{c | c | c | c | c | c | c} F &amp; D &amp; E &amp; G &amp; P &amp; A &amp; L\\ \hline C &amp; H &amp; I &amp; I &amp; U &amp; G &amp; F\\ \hline G &amp; Z &amp; G &amp; A &amp; F &amp; Z &amp; U\\ \hline F &amp; R &amp; \textbf{H} &amp; \textbf{A} &amp; \textbf{U} &amp; \textbf{S} &amp; Z\\ \hline R &amp; P &amp; L &amp; I &amp; N &amp; F &amp; H\\ \hline L &amp; U &amp; G &amp; I &amp; A &amp; C &amp; T\\ \hline A &amp; B &amp; D &amp; N &amp; E &amp; R &amp; Z\\ \end{tabular}  \end{minipage}  \begin{minipage}{0.3\textwidth} \begin{tabular}{c | c | c | c | c | c | c} F &amp; D &amp; E &amp; G &amp; P &amp; A &amp; L\\ \hline C &amp; H &amp; I &amp; I &amp; U &amp; G &amp; F\\ \hline G &amp; Z &amp; G &amp; A &amp; F &amp; Z &amp; U\\ \hline F &amp; R &amp; \textbf{H} &amp; \textbf{A} &amp; \textbf{U} &amp; \textbf{S} &amp; Z\\ \hline R &amp; P &amp; L &amp; I &amp; N &amp; F &amp; H\\ \hline L &amp; U &amp; G &amp; I &amp; A &amp; C &amp; T\\ \hline A &amp; B &amp; D &amp; N &amp; E &amp; R &amp; Z\\ \end{tabular}  \end{minipage}   But it doesn't work. The tables are one below the other. What am I doing wrong? What are good reasons to prohibit inheritance in Java, for example by using final classes or classes using a single, private parameterless constructor? What are good reasons of making a method final? I have the following element element(by.css(&quot;span[aria-label='Picker ID, TESTUSER']&quot;)  I want to assure the text on this filed is TESTUSER, so I tried:  expect(element(by.css(&quot;span[aria-label='Picker ID, TESTUSER']&quot;)).getAttribute('value')).toEqual('TESTUSER');  then I got the error: Expected null to equal 'TESTUSER' So I tried: element(by.css(&quot;span[aria-label='Picker ID, TESTUSER']&quot;)).getText().then(function (value) {         console.log(value);       })  And I got this error: Expected '' to be 'TESTUSER'.  How to get the value of this field and expect it is TESTUSER? Converting shapefile To GeoJSON using ArcPy? I have a ton of MP3s, but their ID tags are not filled in.  Going in manually to populate them is simply too much work.    I was wondering if there is a way to populate them automatically.  Perhaps by feeding the MP3s to Shazam or Midori or something like.  I am not above writing some code to make it happen, if someone can suggest a way. Export each image from a collection in Google Earth Engine I am trying to export each image in a filtered stack of Sentinel-1 images and cannot seem to get it right.   suggests using imageCollection.map() and a custom function (such as a geometric clip).  // Create a geometry representing an export region. var roi = ee.Geometry.Rectangle([-63.0, 9.2, -63.1, 9.3]);   // Load the Sentinel-1 ImageCollection. var sentinel1 = ee.ImageCollection('COPERNICUS/S1_GRD');   // Filter by metadata properties. var IW_H = sentinel1   // Filter to get images with VV and VH dual polarization.   .filter(ee.Filter.listContains('transmitterReceiverPolarisation', 'VV'))   .filter(ee.Filter.listContains('transmitterReceiverPolarisation', 'VH'))   // Filter to get images collected in interferometric wide swath mode.   .filter(ee.Filter.eq('instrumentMode', 'IW'))   // Filter IWs to get High res.   .filter(ee.Filter.eq('resolution', 'H'))   // Filter IW-Highs to get 10m res   .filter(ee.Filter.eq('resolution_meters', 10));   // Filter to get images from different look angles  var DescCollection = IW_H.filter(ee.Filter.eq('orbitProperties_pass', 'DESCENDING'));   var ClipFunc = function(iImage, geom) {   var iClip = clip(iImage, geom);   return(iClip); };   imageCollection.map(ClipFunc(DescCollection, roi)); Rotating clears selected tags Can every non-simple group $G$ be written as a semidirect product? When people want to classify a group with certain (small) order, they seem to find a normal subgroup $H$ and a subgroup $K$, and then consider how many distinct $H \rtimes_\varphi K$ are there.  My question is: For any group $G$, does it always exist normal subgroup $H$, subgroup $K$ and $\phi : K \rightarrow Aut(H)$ s.t. $G\cong H \rtimes_\varphi K $?  Sorry if this question is too basic...  Thanks the comment and the answers. Then if the $G$ is not simple, can we have can $G\cong H\rtimes_\varphi K$ for proper subgroup $H$, $K$, with $H$ normal?  EDIT:  If we have a group $G$, that is not simple (then $G$ has at least one normal subgroup), are there always a non-trivial normal subgroup $H$ and a proper subgroup $K$ s.t. $G \cong H \rtimes K$. (Note that if $G$ is simple this is clearly not possible).  But the quaternion group and $Z_4$ given in answers have shown that we cannot always have it. Does opacity:0 have exactly the same effect as visibility:hidden It is will known that increasing cooling of a metal casting will lead to finer micro-structure which mean higher mechanical properties. If I have 2 molds one is thick copper die ,&amp; second is just thin-walled copper cup or mold cooled by water. which one of them excepted to cool the molten metal i.e. aluminium faster ?   by calculation it seems that copper die have higher cooling power as it has higher thermal diffusivity , but in real life it seems water have more cooling power. I am so confused. Let $G$ be a group. Show that a nonempty subset $H$ is a subgroup of $G$ if any only if $ab^{-1} \in H $ for any $a,b \in H$.  The forward direction is quite easy. Suppose $H$ is a subgroup. Then by closure, $ab \in H$ for any $a,b \in H$. Every element has an inverse. Hence, if $b \in H $, then $b^{-1} \in H$. Hence, by closure again, $ab^{-1} \in H$.   Backward direction, suppose $ab^{-1} \in H $ for any $a,b \in H$. Let $a=b$. Then we have $bb^{-1}=1_H\in H$. Let $a=1_H$ , we have $1_Hb^{-1}=b^{-1} \in H$. I don't know how to show closure.  Reference: Fraleigh p. 58  Question 5.45 in A First Course in Abstract Algebra Let X be a T1 space, and show that X is normal if and only if each neighbourhood of a closed set F contains the closure of some neighbourhood of F Let $X$ be a $T_1$-space, and show that $X$ is normal if and only if each neighbourhood of a closed set $F$ contains the closure of some neighbourhood of $F$.  I saw this statement in the book Introduction to topology and modern analysis by Simmons. I tried to prove it but I did not get any where. How may it be proved? If refraction slows down light, isn't it possible to hold light still? I have a quick question about the refraction of light, and I'm sorry if it seems a bit simplistic or even stupid, but I'm still learning.  We know that when light passes through a denser medium, it slows down. However, is there a limit to that slowing down? If no, wouldn't it be possible, with some type of medium we make ourselves (like a crystal), to decrease the light's speed down to a point where we would be able to "see the photons moving forwards"?  I know it is way more complicated than that and that you can't see light unless some other light bounces off it, what I mean is slowing down light to an extreme and unusual speed). That sounds completely absurd but I can't seem to find what is wrong. Can anyone can explain it to me? :)