P(A) $\subset$ P(B) implies A $\subset $ B proof or disproof.  I have a strange feeling this is false but I do not know. Something to do with P(A) $\subset$ P(B) seems strange since P(B) is itself a powerself with P(A) being a subset.
Here is my proof, I would appreciate it if someone could critique it for me:  To prove this statement true, we must proof that the two conditional statements ("If $\mathcal{P}(A)⊆ \mathcal{P}(B)$, then $A⊆B$," and, If $A⊆B$, then $\mathcal{P}(A)⊆ \mathcal{P}(B)$) are true.    Contrapositive of the first statement: If $A \nsubseteq B$, then $\mathcal{P}(A) \nsubseteq \mathcal{P}(B)$  If $A \nsubseteq B$, then there must be some element in $A$, call it $x$, that is not in $B$: $x \in A$, and $x \notin B$. Since $x \in A$, then $\{x\} \in \mathcal{P}(A)$; moreover, since $x \notin B$, then $\{x\} \notin \mathcal{P}(B)$, which proves that, if $A \nsubseteq B$, then $\mathcal{P}(A) \nsubseteq \mathcal{P}(B)$. By proving the contrapositive true, the original proposition must be true.    To prove the second statement true, I would implement nearly the same argument, so that isn't necessary to write. So, does this proof seem correct? Also, was the contrapositive necessary? Or is there another way to prove the initial statement?
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