Do you have a euro?   I saw the above sentence and do not understand why you say "a" instead of "an"?  You say Do you have "an" umbrella?, but Do you have "a" pound?
2074
In the following example, is it appropriate to use a or an as the indefinite article, and why?     He ate __ green apple.   I know that in the case of just "apple", it would be "an apple," but I've heard conflicting answers for "green apple," where the noun is separated from the article by an adjective.  Also, which is more appropriate in this case:     He ate  __ enormous Pop-Tart.
11151
I'm thinking that the singular verbs "is" and "has" are correct below because we're referring to a singular lump of precipitation. Although the subject "inches" is plural, I think the singular verbs are correct below. We wouldn't say, "Fifty dollars are a lot of money." I think this is basically the same concept.  Good for the singular verbs below?  One to 3 inches of snow "is" expected. (Not: ... are expected.)  Ten inches of snow "has" fallen. (Not: ... have fallen.)
14202
I faced a problem to answer a negative question, for example, when someone asks you:      Don't you have any money?   It's a yes/no question but how should one answer the question without ambiguity?  When you answer "yes", does it mean "yes, I don't have any money"? or the other way "Yes, I do have money"? the questioner may think you are agreeing to the negative, that yes, you do not have any money.  I know it's better to answer with "on the contrary" but is it possible to answer yes or no?
68297
What article should be used in the following sentence?     He was English by [a/the/] blood.   I feel there should be a zero article here, but I was taught that the zero article is impossible in English.
59663
I asked my bank to close my account on 12th of May. Also     I expect the account to be closed [?] 12th of May   . What preposition should be there? I think about by or due. Also if I want to ask someone a question: What date was your account closed [missing preposition?]
93486
I just tried the eurosym package for the first time, and when I try $\euro$, I simply get e. I have tried looking on line, for instance  and .  Seems to suggest that I should not be getting simply the letter e. I could see perhaps the convention switching to being simply the letter $e$, but would expect    that to be mentioned in some site associated with eurosym; and why bother using eurosym to simply write the letter e.
16736
I have this question that my brain cannot understand because for me it seems to be very illogical. Please, try to explain this to me. It is both english problem but also my native language problem.  For example: If I bought something two days ago. (e.g. Monday, so today is Wednesday) I can't say during Wednesday that I haven't bought anything for 2 days.  Because I skiped just one day and I can still buy something today no? So I would say which makes more logic to me: I haven't bought anything for 1 day.  Same as if I was at the club on Monday now is Wednesday, I would say I haven't been to that club for 1 day. Since today I can still go there. However, i saw more people using it the other way. Which in my opinion is illogical.  They say: I haven't bought anything for 2 days OR I haven't been to that club for 2 days meaning the last time they were there was two days ago. However how logical is it? Imagine you come to that club on Wednesday if you were there on Monday and say to the same barman you saw there on Monday that you haven't been here for 2 days and he would look like: what? are you stupid? You weren't here just one day.  Like as the first question, I haven't purchased anything for 2 days is valid only if you last purchased something on monday and today is thursday, in my opinion, because we should not count monday since you already bought something.  Does anybody get my point? Thanks for answers and your help.
64102
When it comes to losing weight, a quick fix to would be nice, but we   know there’s no such [a] thing. ()   It sounds like there isn’t ‘a’ in the news. So I wonder if it be right when there is no ‘a’ after ‘such.’ Would it be okay?
120502
A colleague asked me which of these sentences is correct, or if they are both correct which is better to use.   Are you using the current template version? Do you use the current template version?   I recommended using the first sentence but only because it sounds better to me.  Is there anything grammatically wrong with the second sentence or does it convey a different meaning to the first sentence?
25949
This argument has come up at work, and I actually found it pretty interesting.  My colleague is arguing that you might say "a quarter of a pizza", whereas you'd just say "half of a pizza" rather than "a half of a pizza".  So my question is:   Which is correct: "a half of an [x]", "half of an [x]", or both? Is there a difference in how we treat the word "half" as opposed to "quarter" or other fractions? If so, why?   Hopefully this isn't a duplicate - there are some   on the site, but nothing that addresses the first "a" used.
46915
After reading  post, I was struck by the omission of the period (full stop) at the end of the acronym given.     A.V.C   I've never seen this before here in the States.  Is it permissible here? In England? Elsewhere?  Is it common anywhere?
73017
English not my native language. I'm trying to understand what would be correct in British English.  If I want to use a car for some time. I can say, "I want to rent a car". But from my knowledge there may be a  misunderstanding. I can say the same words if I want to give a car to someone to use for some time and I want to receive payment.  So what would be correct and not misunderstanding?   1) I want to use a car for some time = "I want to hire a car" 2) I want to give a car to someone to use for some time = "rent out a car"   Is my understanding correct?
56149
I'm not a native english speaker, so even though I'm decently proficient at it, I don't really "know the rules" sometimes, and this is one that's been confusing me for a long time.  Which one is correct in each sentence?     If the movement [was/were] to continue uncorrected, the tower would   one day topple.      If I [was/were] rich, I would buy a yacht.   NOTE: I care not only about the case of "I", but also "she", "them", "it", etc, as in the example of the tower. Would it be any different if instead of the tower, it'd be me who'd topple if uncorrected?  I'm pretty sure it's "were" in both cases. That's what they taught me, I think. I started to doubt when I saw a lot of "was", but it sounded like the typical intentional mistake used "stylistically". ("If I was a rich girl...")  Then I saw it some more and thought it came down to an American/British English difference (I was taught British, in theory, and most of what I read is American).    But that tower sentence came straight from "The Guardian"...  When do you use was and when do you use were?
113042
Can you explain why we say AN NHS provision but A National Health provision. Or A UFO but An UNIDENTIFIED Fly Object. Are there any rules regarding the use of A or An when using initials such as ! In business FME ? Thanks
62213
I know the ultimate meaning of this is "I have no money."  But why? If ain't means have not, then isn't it true that "I ain't got no money" would be read as "I have not got no money"?  Can I have not got [no money] be interpreted as double negative, and hence determining that "I have money", which is not the true meaning of such saying?
66212
I always try to remember to use "cannot" when applicable as in "I cannot take an umbrella" (because I do not have one).  I also thought that the problem with "I can not take an umbrella" was that it was ambiguous: it could also mean that I could decide not to take an umbrella. Trying to write unambiguously most of the time, I would therefore never use it.  Now I see it claimed that it is in fact not ambiguous, and only carries the second meaning. Usually I would accept such advice at face value and start using "can not" when the second meaning is unambiguously meant, but this comes from a style guide I have other reasons not to respect very much.  Does "can not" have a single unambiguous meaning?  (I have read  but my question is more about current usage. The length of the answer to that question does confirm my prejudice a bit, though)
36036
I noticed that British people sometimes use me instead of my. For example, Liam Gallagher does it quite often. Example:  The wind was strong I have nearly lost me pants  What is a story behind this alteration? Is it appropriate in formal language? Do people really speak like that? Or is this a dialect rather than a widely spread manner?