I am editing a translation of a book on Colossians. Should the sub-heading be 'A discussion of Colossians 1:1-23, or on Colossians 1:1-23?
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“A discussion of”, “a discussion on”, and “a discussion about”: When is each phrase used in preference to the other? If context is important, I want to use it as a subheading on a piece of non-fiction.
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Should the phrase be "one or more is...", or "one or more are..."?
67875
I have a question about the phrase "to this day": (from Frederick the Great by Giles MacDonogh)        They started appearing even before his death on 17 August 1786, and they still crop up to this day.   Should "to this day" be read in the sense of "to a point in time" ("he worked from 1 pm to midnight") or "at a point in time" ("at this moment")?
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I have seen the word 'only' placed both before and after a noun. Where should the word 'only' go in this sentence? Is it the writer's choice?   If you have attended every lesson, only the songs need to be rehearsed at home. If you have attended every lesson, the songs only need to be rehearsed at home.
6358
Are there any concrete rules that say which words (parts of speech) in a title should start with a capital letter? What would be a correct capitalization for the title of this question?
85497
Can a sentence like this:      "I don't know who the first man that made such and such thing in such and such place was,"    be grammatically correct if we don't put "was" at the end of the long phrase, that is, if we write:      "I don't know who was the first man that made such and such thing in such and such place"?    I can see in Google Books examples that in such cases the verb is often put after the wh-word, but I don't know if there is a grammar rule to support this. Some examples:  "We do not know who was the first man who ascended above a poor and humble people to become Egypt's first king ..."  "... we do not know what was the ultimate judgment of the various members of the community ..."  "I do not know who was the first to suggest a connection between the problem of free will and the breakdown ..."  "I do not know what was the date of this change in me, nor of the train of ideas ..."  "We do not know what was the primitive text from which Codex Bezae derived its Latin or its Greek ..."  "We do not know what was the practice in the days of the monarchy, but the story of Athaliah shows ..."
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In the King James version of the Bible there is a verse like this:     The Lord is my strength, and my fortress, and my song. And He is become my salvation.   Is it still feasible to use "is become" instead of "has become" and what is the semantic difference?
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Four score and seven years ago, our fathers brought forth on this continent, a new nation, conceived in Liberty, and dedicated to the proposition that all men are created equal.   sbj: fathers         det: our vrb: brought forth         obj: nation                 det: a                 adj: new                 adj: *conceived*                         adv: &lt;in&gt;                                 obj: liberty                 cnj: and                 adj: *dedicated*                         adv: &lt;to&gt;                                 obj: proposition                                         det: the                                         adj: -that-                                                 sbj: men                                                         det: all                                                 vrb: are created                                                         cmp: equal         adv: &lt;on&gt;                 obj: continent                         det: this         adv: ...?   I'm working on this but can't wrap my head around the phrase in bold. I know that it's adverbial phrase of time, but what kind of phrase is it exactly? What part of speech is 'ago'? Sources don't seem to agree.
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I am writing a subordinate clause in the "Related Work" section of my academic paper. Which is correct?     In [1], Smith et al. pointed out that the solution is feasible.   OR     In [1], Smith et al. pointed out that the solution was feasible.   I am quite confused.  On the one hand, I remember clearly the verb tense in the "that" clause should follow that of the verb in the main sentence. Hence, "was" should be used, following "pointed".  On the other hand, Smith's work is always there and always thinks that the solution is feasible. Hence, the present tense should be used.  Which reasoning is correct?  (NOTE: The OP is asking if it is obligatory that the "is" verb is backshifted into "was", or if backshifting is not allowed, or if backshifting is optional. -- F.E.)
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1) My brother's friend's opinions      2) My brothers' friend's opinions   I hope "1" and "2" are pretty clear and correct.  Now, let us suppose that the brother in "1" is a brother-in-law and that all the brothers in "2" are brothers-in-law.  Question is: How do we rewrite "1" and "2" in these cases?  Following the J.R.'s suggestion, I have done some preliminary researches and I found that when in-laws become possessive brothers-in-law is written brother-in-law's. So, I would conclude that we should rewrite "1" and "2" in the same way, as follow.     i) My brother-in-law's friend's opinions.      ii) My brother-in-law's friend's opinions.   But, if it is so, how can we distinguish the two different cases?
14239
I just found  to a question on SO. While it provides a source for the (very long) quote, I do not like the fact that the answerer just posted the quote, without adding anything. Maybe add highlights/emphasis or remove uninteresting passages. Or skip the quote altogether and write a short summary. I feel, in the current form, this should have been a comment that just links to the original article.  Am I too pedantic? Should I flag this as not an answer? Should I downvote it? What do you think about such answers?
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(a) When one reads the Hindi literature of the twentieth century, he finds a striking contrast between the writings of Munshi Premchand and later day writers of popular Hindi fiction.      (b)  When one reads the Hindi literature of the twentieth century, one finds a striking contrast between the writings of Munshi Premchand and later day writers of popular Hindi fiction.   According to me, (b) should be the correct one as "one" cannot be used interchangeably with other pronouns when referring to the same thing. But the correct answer is (a). Can someone explain?
96225
The first and second chapters are....   Or      The first and the second chapters are...   Which is the correct usage? Is it correct to use the for both the phrases or not?? Please explain to me.
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In the course of answering  (which is now deleted and may be viewed only by 10K+ community members), we have evoked some dispute over whether the phrase      Am I needing to read this book?   is grammatical.  I think it is correct, although not common, but others think differently. Is this a correct grammatical structure, albeit perhaps a bit odd?    EDIT: I think I should clarify further.  I don’t disagree that this phrasing is unusual; in fact, that’s what I said in the other answer.  What I am interested in is whether it is correct or not. I think it is because of its uncommonness that I am not certain. It might be more straightforward to ask it this way:     Is the sentence “I am needing to read this book” grammatical?  If not, why not?
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This came up when reviewing a written English exercise, and I realized that I don't entirely trust my intuition on the answer.  Which of the following is correct?  Or are both valid?  (Or is it strongly advisable to rewrite the sentence in some other way?)   "I see what appears to be a man and his son." "I see what appear to be a man and his son."
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I'm a little confused about the following sentences. Could you please tell me which one(s) is/are correct?        The first and the second chapter are difficult.   The first and the second chapters are difficult.   The first and second chapters are difficult.   The first and second chapter are difficult.      I believe #1 &amp; #3 are correct, while #2 &amp; #4 are incorrect.  But when seeing the answers to the Quora question , I wonder why they say #2 is correct.
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Should I capitalize the word "the" when speaking of God as "the/The Lord"?     I praise the Lord.   or...     I praise The Lord.