I am not sure whether either of the following sentences (in quotations) are grammatically correct. They both sound awkward to me. Is anyone able to judge whether they are?  "Since the latter is large, so must the former be."  or  "Since the latter is large, so must be the former."
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I have seen this construction quite often:      Online ads have been around since the dawn of the Web, but only in   recent years have they become the rapturous life dream of Silicon   Valley.   What is the rule there?. When your sentence doesn't start with pronoun + verb, invert them as verb + pronoun?. I know it sounds awkward but is it possible (grammatically correct) to use something similar to:      Online ads have been around since the dawn of the Web, but only in   recent years they have become...   And in any case, does this only work with have (or has)? Maybe it works fine with 'had' but I can't think of an example right now.
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Consider the following examples:   "And it is a bottle, too." "And it is a bottle too."   Is there a semantic difference between these two sentences? Or do they mean the same thing, with or without the comma before "too"? If not, what is the correct usage of the comma in context of "too"?
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Is this sentence correct as is, or should I remove the second has since that phrase is connected to the preceding one with and?     As Mr. X has replied your email and has requested the 'PDF files' of the project, here please find attached the requested files.
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When should I use "as part of", and when "as a part of"?
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Sentences are:   "The rainforests are in danger." "Rainforests are in danger."  So in this case, I think that they are both correct sentences...but:  "Guitars are musical instruments."  "The guitars are musical instruments."  In this case, we are still making generic statements about a plural noun, but the second one sounds bizarre. This for a student. I'm not sure WHY it's awkward. Why do we opt for "The guitar is a musical instrument."  Thanks in advance :)
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According to , first of all is twice as popular as firstly, but secondly is a hundred times more popular than second of all.  When I present two points, do I have to be consistent in the choice of these phrases (if I use firstly, should the other be secondly)?  Because If I choose the most popular, my sentence would be like "First of all he is rich, secondly he is also smart." Which exhibits kind of inconsistency. How does it sound?
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Occasionally I see constructs like this in English sentences:        Not only is this true in this case, but ...      What puzzles me is the "is this" part of it. The sentence is not a question, yet it seems to have a question-like order. Isn't this correct/preferred:        Not only this is true in this case, but ...      Are there other cases where non-question sentences contain question-like parts (so to speak)?
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I know we can begin a sentence with Therefore. We can also use it after commas in a sentence.  For example, which is correct?   She had previous experience, therefore she seemed the best candidate. She had previous experience. Therefore, she seemed the best candidate.   I myself feel when the first or second clause is long or when the subject is switched, using "therefore" at the beginning of sentence is better. Therefore, I think sentence #1 is better here because it uses the same subject and both sentences are short.
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Here's an example:  Should I use it or not?   OR  Should I use it, or not?   Which one is correct?
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What's the difference between these two sentences? And which one's grammatically correct?
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Consider the sentence:     "She sees him not so much as her uncle as her friend."   Is this sentence correct? I feel something is missing, or perhaps I am disturbed by the extra 'as'. Compare with:     "He is not so much her friend as (he is) her uncle."   What do you suggest?
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What's the correct form? If both are correct, what's the difference?
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My question is what is the difference among these three sentences.   He is big enough to do such  heavy works. He is not big enough to do such heavy works. He is small enough to do such  heavy works.   I am so much confused between 2 and 3.Also, I don't get what the 3rd one means.
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It is me who am to blame.    It is I who am to blame.      Which one is correct here? I am bewildered about these two sentences.
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Personally, I use “but” and “so” to start sentences, but not “and” and “because”.  Today I was talking to a friend of my brother on this matter, who is in 6th Grade. He takes tuition from a private tutor who told him that in early days using “and”, “but”, “so” to start a sentence was okay, but now-a-days it is becoming obsolete and that we should not use them to start a sentence. He is a reputed teacher here and he keeps track of current affairs. (He is the one who told me, when I was his student, that “will” is being used after “I” now-a-days and I followed the advice.) So I could not deny this information. Tried to find in Google about this but no source made me think it is trustworthy. So I would like to know this in StackExchange,   What is the actual rule and is this rule being changed?    PS- I don't use “because” to start sentences but I always had a doubt. So I added it!
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She has five kids. I can imagine how busy she would be.   Is the use of would be right in this sentence? What about      She has five kids. I can imagine how busy she is.   Are both correct? Do they mean different things?
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Sentence that needs correction:      Sensationalism in television shows masquerading as "news" programs are making it difficult for serious journalism to compete for ratings.   The correction should be sensationalism...is. I don't see how the use of are is incorrect. What's wrong with the sentence above?