When should we be using "to me", and for what occasions are "for me" better?  Take for instance the following sentence:   "It's a no-brainer to/for me that schools should be subsidized by the government."
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Prepositions are tricky to figure out. I'd like to know whether or not I can use these two prepositions interchangeably in the following examples.  It's very important for me/to me to study abroad. For me/to me all that matters is how much it will cost. You are the most beautiful girl, at least for me/to me. Living in our house is just unbearable for me/to me.  As an ELL, I have to make sentences in a way like assemblying parts. At times, the contrived sentences may seem to be a little bit unnatural to native speakers, so the examples above are just tokens here. There must be better ways to convey the meaning.
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If you're interested in grammar, as I am, I am sure you have delved into a thought process about infinitive to, and like me, you have probably questioned what it is, or what it could be defined as. My mind always wants to place it in the Eight Parts of Speech, and I know this is foolish of me to some regard, so I stray from it, but I still wish to designate it under something that can be explain it. So, this is the motivation for this post, this question: What is the infinitive to, and why?  Here are my thoughts: There are three real possibilities, going back through the times. First, we can say that it is part of the verb that comes after it (to go, to run, etc.). This could be supported by the claim that you are not supposed to "split" infinitives ("To boldly go"), but only that.   Secondly, we could consider it a subordinator. I came across this designation most recently in my studies of modern and transformational grammar. As of right now, it is still the one I accept, especially as a result of the trend of designating more phrases as clauses. It works, except it's weird. Do we call this a unique subordinator as a result of how it operates? For example, to-infinitive clauses call for non-finite verb forms, which typically have an implied subject as a part of their clause. For example, "I want to go to the store." In the infinitive clause, "I" is the implied subject, as a understand. So, again, this works. However, things get a little weird when other subordinators come into play. For example, "I'm excited for you to win the competition." Now, if I'm right, those of you will say that "for" is a preposition here, as a result of the new-grammar stuff, but I'm going to count it as a subordinator, as defined by my own beliefs and that of a lot of other grammars. So, how do the clauses work in such a sentence? According to transformational grammar, "for you to win the competition" is defined as an ordinary clause. So, does that mean that it also contains a secondary clause within itself (the infinitive clause part)? If so, how do those two clauses work in conjunction to each other when one is so integrated? "For you to win the competition" looks to just be one clause, but if that's the case, doesn't "to" have to represent something else?  This moves us on to the third way to look at things, which is to consider "to" as auxiliary verb, a defective one at that. There are a lot of things to support this, and it even allows for the split infinitive. Furthermore, it calls for a non-finite verb form to follow, like an auxiliary. But, as I said before, it's defective in the way that is all it can function as.  As I said, I still accept to as a subordinator, but I want to be proven wrong or right. Wrong by showing evidence of it being something else, or right by showing how clauses operate when it seems to be layered up.
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I'm always confused when it's correct to use "Me" and when it's correct to use "I"?   Can I always replace "I" by "me" (not opposite)?  Some examples:  "Me and you went together there"  "I and you went together there"   For the moment I'm using me just in the end of the sentence or when I'm talking about me and someone else together. But I sometimes hear people that replace the two pronouns. Maybe here I'll solve the problem and I'll Know what is the correct way.
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I read from a book that &quot;you and I&quot; replaces &quot;we&quot; in a sentence, while &quot;you and me&quot; replaces &quot;us&quot;. Examples:   The professor wants to see you and me [us].  You and I [we] will go together.    Is this correct? I was under the notion that &quot;I&quot; and &quot;me&quot; could be used interchangeably.
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Which is right?      I went to the (mall) to meet my parents for lunch / to lunch   This for a paper I am submitting for a writing assignment. I have heard "to lunch" is right, but is it right in this sentence please?
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What is the difference:  -I want to drink something. -Me too.  And  -I want to drink something. -Me either.
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The place is important for/to me.   I changed the variable for/to the project.   I can do to/for you.   In/for/to this project, I created a new method.      Does it mean any difference?  This bothered me many times.  Wish someone can answer.
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Is it improper to say "me and Person X"?  I always hear it said as "Person X and I", but have personally learned to say "me and Person X".  Is there a difference between the two versions and is one of them incorrect? "Person and I" just sounds more formal to me.
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Imagine you are organizing a lunch and want to ask someone (your friend or sister, etc.) to come over and help you prepare the meal. Which one of the following words works properly in the self-made sentence below? For me they both work correctly:        Can you come over a bit early to help me with lunch?   Can you come over a bit earlier to help me with lunch?
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I have a doubt about the following sentence how it should be made correctly.     "I'm happy when you're beside/s (of) me"   Beside or besides, me or of me?
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As it is common with people from my country, I have an immense difficulty with prepositions in English, especially with the use of in and on.   When the preposition indicates the position of the object it is a bit easier to decide which one to use, but as it requires thinking from me, I still say things like "I put the bill in the fridge", "my pencil is on my bag", etc, even though if I think about it, I would know how to say it correctly.  Of course, even in those cases where the preposition indicates position the decision is not always clear, as is the case for example with "on the bus" (you are not on top of the bus, you are inside the bus) or "he is in bed" (you are not inside the bed, you are on top of your bed).  Other cases are even less clear, and I believe there is no real rule to decide what should be said; the person should just know it. Two examples are "in a bad mood", "you are on my mind".  So my first question is whether there is really no rule to help me. The second question refers to two of the cases where I still don't know whether to use in or on:   good luck on/in your exam in/on the list   The last one is especially important to me, as I have asked a number of native speakers, and each time I get a different answer. The only consensus seems to be the case where you say "on top of the list". Apart from that, some people will say that I should say "his name is in the list" whereas others think I should say "his name is on the list". And yeah, a couple of people did tell me that I can use either.  Can someone help me?
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Personally, I use “but” and “so” to start sentences, but not “and” and “because”.  Today I was talking to a friend of my brother on this matter, who is in 6th Grade. He takes tuition from a private tutor who told him that in early days using “and”, “but”, “so” to start a sentence was okay, but now-a-days it is becoming obsolete and that we should not use them to start a sentence. He is a reputed teacher here and he keeps track of current affairs. (He is the one who told me, when I was his student, that “will” is being used after “I” now-a-days and I followed the advice.) So I could not deny this information. Tried to find in Google about this but no source made me think it is trustworthy. So I would like to know this in StackExchange,   What is the actual rule and is this rule being changed?    PS- I don't use “because” to start sentences but I always had a doubt. So I added it!
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I was taught at school that the following expression is not grammatically correct:  Who is there? It's me.  The correct one is:  Who is there? It's I.  Can you let me know which one is accurate?
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Both these phrases are correct,         Give me it     Buy me them      so why are these sentences wrong?        Give John it      Buy John them      In these sentences, "me/John" are both indirect objects, and the sentence format is same. So, why are former sentences correct and latter ones wrong?   Also, Do it for me is correct but Do me it is wrong.   What is the reason for this?
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Here's an example:  Should I use it or not?   OR  Should I use it, or not?   Which one is correct?
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I am quite confused with the usage of I and me, Can anybody tell me what should be used in the following sentence: Your husband doesn't believe that You're older than (I / Me).
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I don't think you understood me. / I think you misunderstood me.    Do these senteces mean the same thing? If not, what's the difference?  Edit: I just realized that I asked something different from what I originally wanted. So I am also interested in the following comparison:     I don't think you understand me. / I think you don't understand me.