The two sentences here both indicate that, at some point in the past, I performed some work:   I did work I worked   What is the difference between these two sentences? Does constructing one with did and the other with a simple past change the meaning?
2472
This morning I read this sentence (see ):     On July 24th and again on July 29th,   Egyptian police did shoot dead unarmed   African migrants attempting to cross   that border.   Why "did shoot" and not "shot"?
106354
What is the difference in the meaning between the following two tenses?     I used to travel alone.   I was used to traveling alone.
68482
I comforted a crying kid. I comforted a kid crying.   Is there any difference of the two sentences above in meaning?
105394
I thought we can use perfect infinitive construction to talk about plans which didn't happen. For instance:     I was to have started work last week, but I changed my mind.   But what about that construction:     I'm sorry to have disturbed you.   Both two these examples were taken from M. Swan from the regarding sections.
12698
Regarding actions taken in the past, besides the differences those two tenses have semantically, my teacher shared that it could be a British vs American English case.   When talking about past action, British prefers present perfect because they take into account that the effect from their past action still happens until now. As for American, they prefer to state the action only. It happened in the past, so past tense it is.     I have had dinner. [British]   vs.      I had dinner. [American]   I hope to hear it from the native speakers, both British and American. What do you think about this? Is it true?  If it is, I don't think it can apply to all cases of past actions. There have to be cases when both style agree to use the same tenses. Could you please help me define the situation when this kind of difference applies and when doesn't?
53725
Here are two sentences:        Once he got the passport, he went to the Chinese consulate in Toronto and applied for a visa.   Once he got the passport, he went to the Chinese consulate in Toronto to apply for a visa.      Are the two sentences grammatical, and do they sound natural?  If they are both fine, what's the difference?
182
What is the difference in meaning and / or use between:     I will have worked here for two years by this time next year.   and     I will have been working here for two years by this time next year.    This is often a point of confusion for students and even 'experts' alike. There could be a number of reasons why a speaker chooses to use either construction:   The rest of the conversation was talking about the future using one form or the other, and to maintain consistency, or even because the speaker had been 'primed' by preceding language The attitude of the speaker reflects their attitude. The use of the progressive could indicate that the speaker feels it's more of a temporary solution.    So, is there a difference in meaning and use? Which one of the above (1 or 2) is more likely? Or is there a third I've not considered?
51667
What's the difference between these two sentences? And which one's grammatically correct?
7763
Which one of the following is correct use? If both are correct, what difference does this change make in a conversation?   Do you know when is this being used? Do you know when this is being used?
18629
I've been reading . I have also been reading this . From these two sources it appears that there is no difference between Present-perfect-tense and Simple-past-tense.     I myself thought up two sentences:           The children played in the sandbox.      The children have played in the sandbox.        The only difference that I am able to recognize is that in the 2nd sentence we are putting some emphasis on the fact that children (have) finished the play. If I translate "have" into my language then it is giving the emphasis that children finished the job. On the other hand the 1st sentence is just telling that children played there some time ago. The 1st sentence is giving no emphasis on the fact that they have finished the play.     Please explain me what is the difference between Present-perfect-tense and Simple-past-tense.
109774
Please have a look at these sentence pairs:           When I worked as a teacher, I met a good friend.    While I was working as a teacher, I met a good friend.         When I had a dream, I thought of the idea.   While I was having a dream, I thought of the idea.         Which ones are correct? And why?
36538
I have been learning English for 7 years now, and I have read so many grammar books with rules, telling the difference between Present Perfect and Past Simple and I still find it hard to distinguish them.   On paper, it is easy, if it is not a certain (exact) time in the past without any time markers (yesterday, a month ago, etc) it is past simple. Yes, but outside the classroom it is really harder than this . I have heard many people speaking how they want to, mixing the tenses.   So, I will give these sentences which i have heard to be constructed differently, please, if someone can explain the difference to me.     Have you enjoyed the party? / Did you enjoy the party?      I have given the documents today. / I gave the documents today.      I have done this when I have revised it. / I did it when I revised it      What did you do today? / What have you done today ?   Is it possible to use past simple without mentioning a definite time in the past  (without the time markers)?     It has been 3 years since we moved house. / It has been 3 years since we have moved house.      I know him since we met each other/ I know him since we have met each other   Correct me if some of the sentences are grammatically wrong!
120033
A causative construction is used, for instance, when we have / make / ... someone do something for us. For example,   "I had the painter paint my house".  We could render this passively too:   "I had my house painted",   meaning that I arranged for a painter to come and paint my house. Or another example:   "I had my car fixed",  meaning that I did not fix my own car rather I asked someone to fix it for me.   But sometimes, we use the exact same construction, that is, "have/get + object + past participle", to denote that we have performed something:  "I got my homework done" or   "I need to get this done by tomorrow".   I am confused! How can one determine when the construction is causative and when it is not?
87208
"Would " &amp; " Used to ".  They both are used for repeated action in the past tense. Then what is the difference between them?
22486
Please tell me what is the difference between the following sentences   He celebrated a little early. He celebrated a little too early.   And    It is a little late to do that thing. It is a little too late to do that thing.
110501
I read this  and this one is different because the second clause is in present tense.  I'm born and brought up in India. - too commonly practiced in India.  I was born in India is correct over I'm born in India. I am pretty clear on that, but then if I want to include brought up which is still effective (present), how do I say that?  I was born and brought up in India. - does not relate the sentence to the present time then. As both are in past I was born in India + I was brought up in India. - no. I AM brought up in India, I'm still here.
43530
Which one of the following is the correct one?   I should have seen it glow. I should have seen it glowing.   Or are both correct? Would you parse them please?