Happy Holi to You and Your Family. Play Safe!   Is anything grammatically wrong in above sentences?  In which category does the second sentence fall?  Can we replace Play Safe! with  Play Safely!. Are they equally true and depict same meaning?  Is the usage of exclamation with both safe and safely correct?
13790
When someone is going to drive their car somewhere, I always used to say "drive safely" to them. Recently I was told I should say "drive safe."    (From: )   Which one is correct?  Similarly, is "do good" correct?
38805
Are they both correct? Should there be singular or plural that right after "any"? If they are both correct, what's the difference?  Here, I quote some sentences from the Internet and I wonder if the word "problem" can be changed into "problems" or vise versa.        I don't think there was any question she wore the pants.    I can ask you any question, and you will answer?   We were never asked any questions.   Any questions about what is happening in mine are put aside until dessert is served.
93732
A very quick question:   Is it correct to say "In case I won't be able to watch that"?  If it's acceptable to say that, what type of sentence is it?  UPDATE:  As a clarification, I want to say "Can you give me that in case I won't be able to have it later". Probably, it's more a supposition than a conditional.
10632
My wife and I are playing a game where you roll dice and move so many spaces in a grid "vertically or horizontally".   In the use of English it is very common to say, this or the other when it comes to making a choice  (exclusive or). Now I know that "or" can also be inclusive, for example "she couldn't read or write", or can be clearly used as an xor "you either come or not" making the statement true for only one of the options but not both.   My issue is where it is not clear whether it is an inclusive/exclusive or, the best example being our game.   I argue that you can move in either direction (inclusive) and the normal use of this conjunction in English should be inclusive unless specified otherwise.   Is this right?
82450
Which of these are acceptable? Is one preferable over the other?   "Chemically-deposited tourmaline is never periwinkle." "Chemically deposited tourmaline is never periwinkle."   Also, is the title to the this question asking what I'm trying to ask?  (I realize that there are other questions about hyphenation in similar contexts; I'm asking specifically about -ly adverbs.)
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My question arises from , where OP asks whether he should use the singular or plural verb form after "the title, as well as the tone,"  As luck would have it, when I searched Google Books for , I found...        ...and...        At the risk of having this question closed as just peeving, I feel that the first one should have been plural "err", because without the commas it seems to me both "the title" and "the tone" have more or less equal status as "joint" subjects of the verb, making it plural.  On the other hand, I feel the commas in the second example effectively demote "the tone" to "parenthetical" status (the clause is almost incidental). Since this encourages us think of "the title" as the primary subject, it should have been singular "derives".  I'm no great fan of "grammatical rules", but it seems weird to me that the only two relevant examples for this specific wording should both (in opposite ways!) contradict my inclinations.  What's going on?
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I just read a book to learn English. And the topic I read is about the phrasal verbs, but a big doubt has come up to my mind.  Is it correct to change the position of the preposition (putting it with the verb instead of after the direct object)?  As in:  Common structure:   My wife backs me up over my decision to quit my job. We have to blow 50 balloons up for the party.  I need to break these shoes in before we run next week. Please help me out to get this job done.   So, would it be correct to do the following:   My wife backs up me over my decision to quit my job. We have to blow up 50 ballons for the party.  I need to break in these shoes before we run next week. Please help out me to get this job done.
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I was reading these questions and I noticed that in one of them, &quot;any&quot; is used with a singular countable noun. And in the other one &quot;any&quot; is used with a plural countable noun. I wanted to know why that is ?
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I have a question about synonyms: I'm wondering for quite a while if synonyms always stand exactly for the same thing. Is there sometimes a little difference in meaning? Let's use clumsy and clunky for example. Can I always replace clunky with clumsy? Since I'm not a native speaker, as you may have noticed, I cannot tell them apart. According to my dictionary, they mean exactly the same. Is it always true?  If the question has already been ask, sorry I couldn't find it.  Edit: Thank you very much! Every answer has helped a lot and thank you so much for it. I really appreciate it. I've voted all your answer because every answer helped me in a different way. I've accepted Barrie England's answer because it was the best one in my case. But all of yours were really good and helpful :)
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Duplicate of:                    My sentence fragment possibilities are        ... can help rule out false alarms   ... can help to rule out false alarms      I feel like both are technically correct, and that the latter sounds somewhat more formal while the former may be a little more clear.  I often come upon the general issue of when to use "to [verb]" or just "[verb]"&nbsp;— is there a general rule?  Is only one of them actually correct?  (Even if someone can explain how to describe the difference between these cases would be appreciated, i.e. "infinitive vs. ____" )
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If you have a more illustrative title, feel free to change it. I searched but I couldn't find one.   This may be an easy and trivial question; if so, I am sorry.  What are the differences between these two sentences?     These two guys seem to be inseparable.      These two guys seem inseparable.   I can intuitively say that the latter one is grammatically wrong. Could you please explain?  EDIT: What I think is John Lawler's and FumbleFingers' answers are worth to read. The reason why I  noted that someone who wants to learn the answer of this question, accidentally misses FumbleFingers' answer.
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I believe the sentence in the title is grammatically correct.   Recently I've seen too many people writing it this way:     I'm not sure what is the right way.   Is it grammatically correct as well? Maybe in a different sense? Or simply misuse by non-native speakers?
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The Longman dictionary suggests two options regarding the word 'protect': protect somebody/something from something and  protect somebody/something against something/  Examples: The cover protects the machine from dust. Physical exercise can protect you against heart disease.  According to the examples, I believe that the verb 'protect' takes  against' when you are talking about something which is not tangible, whereas the preposition 'from' is used with words that can be seen or touch. Am I correct? If not, how to know which preposition is necessary?
73008
Possible Duplicate:     Which one is correct? I thought the latter would be correct but apparently the former is always used; why? Edit: Another (confusing) example:
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I was doing 'articles' exercise on the web. I found this sentence,     Ben has a terrible headache.   Why 'a' is used here. The terrible headache is not a countable noun. Thus, 'a' should not be used here. I feel the correct sentence is "Ben has terrible headache." However, the correct answer is the following: "Ben has a terrible headache."  I am confused. Please do help me.   Can I say, "I had headache."?
113275
There's an old play on words that goes like so:     Grammar: The difference between helping your uncle Jack off a horse, and helping your uncle jack off a horse.    I've been told that it should instead be:     Grammar: The difference between helping your uncle, Jack, off a horse and helping your uncle jack off a horse.    Is either of these correct? Why?
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Is there any difference between “?!” and “!?”?  The  describes:     In informal English, the same inflection is usually notated by ending a sentence with first a question mark and then an exclamation mark, or vice versa. Many people are unfamiliar with the interrobang, and would be puzzled when first seeing it, although its intention is usually self-evident. The interrobang can be hand-written with a single stroke plus the dot. One common application is in cartoons, as a stand-alone symbol of surprise.   Is there a difference, or are they identical?