Since witches and wizards can get new wands if their old wands break, does that mean that their personalities change?  So that means that 2 different wands suited a certain wizard at different points in time (one wand chooses the wizard when they're 11, assuming it's from Ollivander's, and the other wand after the first wand is broken, lost, or irreparable).
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A spin off of  wherein it's asked whether there are any canon examples of a witch or wizard owning more than one wand for practical reasons. As DVK's question doesn't specify regarding The wand chooses the wizard, I'm going to ask about that particular aspect.   Can a witch or wizard be chosen by more than one wand?  We've seen numerous examples in Harry Potter of individuals using wands that belong(ed) to someone else, or had a new wand made for them with Ollivander1 being under duress (Wormtail), but are there any examples in canon where a person is chosen by more than one wand?   Is a child's first purchase from Ollivander's the one and only time they can be "chosen" by a wand? Or, should they break their wand, want a second wand, or lose their wand, and need a replacement, would they be able to be chosen a second time by a totally new wand?  For reference if interested: ; ; ; ;  [Pottermore/Flickr] ETA:  and   1: I know there are other wandmakers in HP, but I am using Ollivander as my example because he is the best known in the series.
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Why did Voldemort never seek the Hallows before the events of the second wizard war?  It seems it would have been much easier for him to retrieve them.  James had the cloak, Regulus had the resurrection stone(not sure if I remember that correctly, I could be wrong), and Dumbledore had the elder wand.  It seems that it would have been much easier for Voldemort to get to the three seeing as the cloak was with Harry who's location was unknown and the stone was within the snitch Harry caught, which only he could open.  So, why did Voldemort wait to seek the Hallows?
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For example, what would happen if a freshly cast  were to be regenerated in response to ?  My hypothesis is that it depends on whose turn it is. The regeneration being essentially a replacement effect, when two replacement effects were to be applied simultaneously, they are to be chosen in APNAP order. Is this correct?  I haven't thought this through to the end, though, so I'm not sure what would happen in the end.
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In her third year at Hogwarts, Hermione is given a time-turner so she can take more classes. Several of her classes are concurrent to each other, so she attends one class (for 1-2 hours) goes back in time, and attends a different class during the same time frame.  But from an aging point of view, she should age 4 hours in relation to the 2 hours everyone else ages. How much older should Hermione be relative to everyone else after using the time-turner for an entire school year?
122013
For example, a character takes the Magic Initiate feat at level 4, picking spells from the Wizard spell list, because they have been researching and learning all they can about magic (such as a Sorcerer studying their inborn magic or a High Elf expanding on their Cantrip feature). It stands to reason that they would continue their research of magic over their next 16 levels, which indicates that they should learn new spells.  At any point, can the spells chosen through the Magic Initiate feat be swapped out for other spells, according to the same Magic Initiate spell selection rules of two cantrips and one 1st-level spell?
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In the first book it seems that Voldemort has been reduced to nothing but a ghostly wisp. But IIRC by the fourth book he somehow has a body that is carried around by Wormtail. In the first book he needs someone to inhabit, by the fourth, he can't really move around, but he does have a body back which can hold a wand.  How did this transition happen?
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Before acquiring the Elder Wand, what kind of wand did Dumbledore have, and what kind of wood and core components went into it?   We know that he was buried with the Elder Wand.  Are there any references to what became of his original wand?
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I have 3 questions about animagus transformation and wands      Does animagus transformation require the use of a wand?   If yes, where does the wand go after the wizard transforms?   Again, if 1 is yes, how did Sirius transform into a dog in Azkaban?     Note that 2 and 3 are invalidated if the answer to 1 is no. If so, is it mentioned anywhere in the books, or can be implied by something in the books, that wand use is not required? I don't think Sirius managing to do it in Azkaban can be used as a proof here, as in Book 3 Wormtail needs a wand to change back into a rat
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I was wondering how come Harry was able to do Lumos without touching his wand in OotP. I remember that he tried to do magic without his wand before (or afterwards), and he couldn't.  Sorry if this is a repeat question. I couldn't find the answer anywhere.
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We know that wands choose their owners as we saw Harry buy his wand at Ollivander's in HP1.  We also know that wands can be made for their owners as we saw in HP7: Ollivander makes a wand for Voldemort as-well as Wormtail having a new one created for him.  But if the wand chooses the owner, how can you guarantee that the new wand will choose you, if you ask someone to create it for you?    As a clarification, this is not the same as  since that question is asking specifically about the Elder Wand, which is known to behave differently to other wands. Also, that's asking about the whole "winning over" scenario, whereas this question asks about a wand being built for the intended owner.
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We know that wizards need a wand to focus their magic (wizards can cast spells without a wand, but they are unfocused and weaker). But some wizards aren't known to carry wands. Instead they carry something that works like a wand, but isn't.  Mad-Eye Moody uses a staff as his wand. Hagrid uses his pink umbrella, which was made from pieces of his broken wand.  Are there any other examples of wizards using something other than a normal wand to cast their spells? What are these objects? Do they work like normal wands, and what gives them their power? Would it be possible to use a magical weapon as a substitute for a wand? (Like, say, used the Sword of Gryffindor to channel your spells.)
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As wielder of an elder wand that belonged to Harry, during Voldemort’s Last Stand, there are two instances of Priori Incantatem occurring, back to back.  Basically, the current order of events makes total sense. Since Nagini was the last horcrux, when the body died, the fragment of Voldemort’s soul locked in it was released. This disrupted the first instance of Priori Incantatem, and Voldemort was now significantly weaker than Harry – so Harry won. Naturally, the Elder Wand’s killing spell was reflected back on Voldemort because of Priori Incantatem outcome.   But, if Voldemort was just told by Harry that the Elder Wand wouldn’t work against Harry because it belonged to Harry, and was a wand that would win any duel for its master, why would Voldemort willingly try and continue to use it? This is doubly so, since after he had cast the killing spell on Harry once it had only torn Voldemort’s soul from Harry’s body – wouldn’t that even imply that the Elder Wand would realistically refuse almost any attempted direct harm against its owner?  Also, wouldn’t a first refusal of the Elder Wand to kill it’s own master also imply an additional refusal even if Voldemort had won either of the Priori Incantatem matches (in which case, the worst that could happen in this line of thinking is, Voldemort has Harry’s wand since Harry’s spell is Expelliarmus)?
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In D&amp;D 3.0 and 3.5, when does a creature with spell-like abilities limited by "per day" uses regain their expired uses?     At the beginning of the next new day?  (i..e, at midnight, dusk, or dawn, depending on setting.) Precisely one day since they exhausted them?  (i.e., 24-hours after they used the first of an "X/day" ability.) In the same manner in which a sorcerer regains their spell-slots.  (i.e, after 8 hours rest and 15 minutes meditation.)
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When wizards are dueling, if they both know how to cast the Killing Curse, then what is the meaning of one being more powerful than the other?  Specifically, we are repeatedly told how powerful Voldemort is. What exactly does this mean? Except for his Horcruxes, he should be no more advantaged in a duel.  PS: This question is not a duplicate. Its essence is that being able to cast a killing curse is the epitome of magical power in duels, and so Voldemort should not have become anybody special.
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There's a lot of emphasis on Harry becoming the master of the Elder Wand after he defeats Draco. But what constitutes a “defeat”?  It seems that Harry wins a wrestling match with Draco, so now he’s the master of the Elder Wand.  But lots of other stuff happens to Harry: Nagini almost kills him, and he escapes just in time, but his wand breaks. The Snatchers chase him through the forest. He and his friends practically surrender (and Hermione even tries to disguise Harry). Voldemort almost kills Harry in the Forbidden Forest (or actually does, depending on how you look at it).  Why are none of these considered to be “defeats”?
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We know that wands choose their owners, more so than the other way around. We also know that to master the Elder Wand, you need to win it, or defeat the current owner.  From the Harry Potter books so far, pretty much everyone who has defeated the previous owner has become the new master.  My question is:  If someone defeats the owner of the Elder Wand, could the Elder Wand still not choose its new owner?  Could it have seen Voldemort as somehow not worthy or something?
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This question:  just speculates on the transfer of ownership of the Elder Wand. But the Elder Wand is supposed to greatly enhance the powers of the wielder. Grindelwald knew he wasn't a match for Dumbledore on even terms:     Over the years, Grindelwald raised an army and began a reign of terror that spread through several European countries and murdered many wizards and Muggles, though he never attempted to take power in Britain for his fear of his former friend, Dumbledore, who was "a shade more skillful" than he was.    But the possession of the Elder Wand should have given him the edge to be able to defeat him. The Elder Wand is supposed to make a wizard nearly invincible, their spells should always be more powerful than the opposing wizard.   How was Dumbledore able to defeat Grindelwald when he was facing the most powerful wand ever made?