We use reflexive pronoun after some verbs like *avail ourself, acquitted himself, absented themselves * etc and some time we have to avoid from reflexive pronoun after some verbs like break, burst, draw, and enlist etc so is there any rule to use and avoid reflexive pronoun after certain verbs?
61331
I have read answers to questions like  but I couldn't find a general rule for using "you" or "yourself", "him" or "himself" that could explain things I see in some examples.  For example, I think that one normally say (according to examples I see in ):   You bring something with you. You have something in you. You have something on you. You pressed her to you.   But on the other hand one would say:   You draw attention to yourself. He killed himself. You can try it out for yourself.   As a general rule, it seems that the reflexive pronoun is used when the object is the same as the subject of the verb. But for prepositional phrases, it seems more complicated. Do some prepositions (like "with", "in", "on") always come with the accusative form of the pronoun, and some other (like "for") don't? What about "to", that seems to be followed by both in different circumstances?
1835
Is there a pronoun I can use as a gender-neutral pronoun when referring back to a singular noun phrase?  Each student should save his questions until the end. Each student should save her questions until the end.
6839
I know that words like login and payoff are properly nouns but I increasingly notice many (not at all uneducated) people use them as verbs:     Will you payoff your credit card this month?   and     Please check this when you login.   To me (a non-native English user), that seems incorrect because separating the core noun from a preposition is what I was taught: Please check this when you log in. (My emphasis)  Is this use proper or not?
58760
In school, I was taught whenever coming across the pattern "either..or" or "neither..nor", we should always consider the noun/pronoun nearer to the verb when deciding which form to use.   For example:      Neither my parents nor John _______ (agree) with that.   In this case, we should use "agrees" instead of "agree" since John is closer to the verb.  Then I have a question. What if when there is only "either" or "neither"?  For example:      There are two particles: quarks and gluons. Neither ________ (detect) in the lab in isolated form yet.   In this case, should I use "has been detected" or "have been detected"?
30294
Does the verb &quot;provide&quot; always have to be used with &quot;with&quot;? For example,  Can you provide me with some good examples? Can you provide me some good examples? Can you provide some good examples?  I suppose it's a transitive verb, isn't it? Moreover, is the following type of usage correct?  You should provide food for your dog before you go on vacation.  If you could give me some good examples regarding &quot;provide&quot; with different types of usage, I'd appreciate that.
65178
Does it sound unnatural to you (natives) when people skip 's' ending of the verb in 3rd person? Heard it many times (e.g. in 50 cent songs - she go, she have, etc.) and always wondered how much it sounds ok.
79999
Milton slept in this room.    According to   , sleep is an intransitive verb (A1). So we shouldn't be able to rewrite the sentence in the English  passive voice.   But I want the most important part of the sentence to be the room and not Milton, so I wrote     This room was slept in by Milton.    First, is this grammatical?   Second, I thought the passive voice in English can only use transitive verbs??   I researched about the English Passive Voice on  and Purdue University's  .   This answer has been marked as a possible duplicate of . But the most upvoted answer there does not address the property of intransitive as assigned by the dictionary, which is an integral part of this question. In addition the same answer there is confusing  because it says both that transitivity is not a property of verbs and yet ends up talking about transitive verbs. In addition, the same answer does not explicitly deal with verbs other than "sense verbs". So I'm not sure if that answer applies to to sleep.
33242
As a BrE. speaker, there are come constructions using verbs in their present continuous form which just sound wrong. The best example being, "I am loving Stack Exchange."  After reading around the internet, all the information I can find seems to be addressing the difference in usage and meaning between -ing and infinitives such as "he went on to sing the National Anthem" and "he went on singing..."  Is there a rule as to which verbs can or should be used in a continuous form "I am drinking tea" and those which shouldn't, "I am loving this tea so much right now*"  Thanks  *In a thick Californian accent!
10973
The rule says that we can use a possessive adjective or an object pronoun before a gerund. Is there a rule  that says when to use each or are they interchangeable? Some say that it's wrong to use an object pronoun before a gerund.
25794
Possible Duplicate:               I found a photo of Sarah, Thomas, James and I?  OR  I found a photo of Sarah, Thomas, James and me?  "I" subject pronoun,  photo "object",   "me" object pronoun - or not as the case may be?  I believe it is "me" not "I" but can you provide why this is so in terms of sentence structure.  Thank you
71249
What is the rule for singular noun objects of plural subjects? For example I and  agree that     They gave their word.   is better than     They gave their words.   To my mind, this is because each has but a single word to give and cannot give more. However, google seems to  on     They gave their life.   vs     They gave their lives.   As you can see in the linked N-gram, the second is far more common than the first. What's going on here? People (cats excluded) only have one life and it seems passing strange that they would be able, let alone willing, to give more.   If pressed, I would claim that the object should only be plural if each of the subjects has many. For example     They called their friends   If each of the "they" in question has only one of whatever object we are talking about I would call it ungrammatical to have that object in the plural form. Am I wrong?    EDIT:  This question was prompted by a comment on  on S&amp;F.SE defending the use of consciousnesses as the plural form of consciousness by referring to . The word was used in this sentence:     Looking for a story where people download their consciousnesses into bodies   It occurred to me that whether or not consciousnesses is correct, it should not be used in that (admittedly bizarre) context since each person only has one consciousness to download. I would have therefore said     Looking for a story where people download their consciousness into bodies   This to me seems like an equivalent sentence to they gave their word or they gave their life. In all three cases I would use the singular form of the noun since each of the subjects can only give (or download as the case may be) one.
87733
I recently read the following in a schoolbook:     Wrote the researchers, "[...]"   I wonder if this is correct English. I have seen it a couple of more times. Is this just a matter of preference? English doesn't really have a very liberal word order, unless you're writing poetry or the like.  Can anyone tell me what this is called? I found some information on subject-verb inversion, but it only seems to be when the object is in front, but in this case, the word order is verb-subject-object.
22860
Should I mention the pronoun again in this case?     "All of these things are not beneficial and (they?) do not   help her"   I know that there is already answer about the question "if it's needed to repeat on the pronoun in case that they are in the same position of grammar tense". But in this case it's different because the question deals with case of two different  tenses (in bold).
82782
Which pronoun should be used with "everything"?  I tend to believe that the following is correct:     I will do everything as soon as it can be done.   but the following also makes sense, considering that "everything" implies "more than 1":     I will do everything as soon as they can be done.
30920
Is it now considered acceptable to follow a proper noun ... or any noun ... with a pronoun? E.g.      The President he issued a new executive order.
94026
When we use causative verbs as in    I asked you to do something   we use 'to do'.   However, we don't say    *I made you to do something    but just    I made you do something.   Is there any particular reason that we use zero (bare) infinitives after make, have, let?
35319
This question is relatively simple. I don't understand why we never use passive form of to infinitive after the adjective unless the subject is "it".  For example:     He is difficult to please.   People consider the example above a correct sentence. But:     He is difficult to be pleased.    People, for example, my teacher, said it sounds wrong and told me not to write this type of sentence. Is it grammatically flawed, or is it just a stylistic choice?