You are not better than me, or You are no better than me. Do they mean the same? If yes, what is their difference?
121256
He is no better than a beggar.     vs     He is not better than a beggar.   Is the meaning roughly the same? If not, what is the difference?
36036
I noticed that British people sometimes use me instead of my. For example, Liam Gallagher does it quite often. Example:  The wind was strong I have nearly lost me pants  What is a story behind this alteration? Is it appropriate in formal language? Do people really speak like that? Or is this a dialect rather than a widely spread manner?
24792
After I found this website, I have a chance to ask questions I used to hesitate to use in a sentence as I am not a native English speaker even though I am really interested in learning English.  Anyways,  Can these sentences be legit and give the same meaning?   I feel something towards her. I feel something against her.   Do they have same meaning and also where can we not use against and towards interchangeably if we can use them interchangeably sometimes.  Edit:  Okay, it seems while feelings are coming to play they cause different meaning but where can I not use them interchangeably when there is no feelings involved?
66709
“You are” vs. “you're” — what is the difference between them?  I get confused between the two a lot. I want to understand how to use them appropriately, because I hate making mistakes.
41792
Which one is the correct use?  She judged him wrong. She judged him wrongly.  Or, are both correct, but have slightly different meanings?
22245
Let’s suppose someone is behaving in a very impolite and perhaps rude way with you and you dislike his manners toward yourself. In such a condition, do the following sentences mean the same and can they be used under these circumstances?      Don’t seem too forward.    Don’t seem overly friendly.   I wonder if you clarify the meaning of each one.
111058
Are both expressions correct? If yes, do they have different meanings? It seems to me that I came across both of them in books, but I'm not sure.
37880
I have seen them both in my reference book, which is written by a native speaker. I wonder why there are two different phrases to describe the same meaning and am looking forward to some reasonable details to explain why this is so.
68553
In English, there are at least two ways to express negation, for example: — I don't have money — I have no money  or — No objects were found — Objects were not found  or — No restrictions are applied — Restrictions are not applied  Questions:   What is the difference between these two forms? Is it only the matter of style or there is more significant differences in the meaning of the sentences? When should we use the first one form and when the second? Do these two forms stress a difference between British and US English?
19624
how are you?  Well, my biggest doubt at the moment is the difference between these two tenses. Actually, the more I study the more I have doubts with these tenses.      /         These similar threads helped me to clarify and reiterate my previous understanding.   I'm not posting in these threads because the site suggests avoiding asking for clarification (I don't know why because it would avoid new threads with the same content).  My main doubt is as follows:     I've lived in New York for two years.   In my understanding, the sentence above implies (1) that I lived in NY for two years and now I live in another place; or (2) I'm moving to another city after two years living in NY; or (3) I lived in NY for two years, then I moved to another place for some period and, finally, I'm returning. Is that correct?     I've been living in New York for two years.   Whereas the sentence above, in my understanding, implies that I lived in NY for two years and I still living there.  Anyway, many sources that I've already read say that these two sentences have the same meaning and are interchangeable. Therein lies my question. Is that correct? Because if these two sentences are interchangeable, it destroys all my understanding.  Thanks in advance.
85652
Do the following sentences denote the same thing?   I have been waiting for you for 6 hours.   It's been 6 hours since I was waiting for you.
99132
and  both appear to be based around  and its syntax. Is there a difference? What makes one better than the other?
31248
You are not hired because you are qualified.   I think this means you are hired but it is not because you are qualified. But I think this can  also means you are not hired, and the reason for it is that you are qualified.   Does this ambiguity really exist or do I mistake anything?
8753
Consider the sentence &quot;I can run faster than 15 miles per hour.&quot; Its meaning is clear and to my eyes obviously grammatically correct. Now let me present some variations that have given me trouble for a long time.  I am faster than 15 miles per hour. – To me this is clearly incorrect. Directly comparing me to a speed doesn't seem right. We need to compare my speed to a speed, or me to another person.  I can run faster than him. – Compared to the base sentence, there is a distinct shift in meaning of the comparison. While before I named a speed faster than which I can run, now I am naming a person. It doesn't seem quite right. I realize the parts of speech can change, but my initial objection is that &quot;him&quot; is not a speed.  I can run faster than he. – This seems most correct to me, but still somehow feels objectionable. Is this in fact the correct way to say it? And if so, is it proper as is or need I say &quot;... faster than he can&quot; or even &quot;... faster than he can run?&quot;  I am faster than him. – With &quot;am&quot; instead of &quot;can run&quot; it now seems slightly more correct. But is it?  I am faster than he. – I'm in doubt here. It doesn't seem wrong to me to say, &quot;I am faster than he is&quot; or even &quot;I am faster than he is fast.&quot; (Though I suppose that is a given since I could hardly properly compare to some other category as in &quot;I am faster than he is smart.&quot;)  My speed is faster than his. – Hmm. This seems more proper as &quot;my speed is greater than his.&quot;   So which of these constructions is correct and which is incorrect? Is there a general rule that I can follow? UPDATE The scholarly article  may be of great interest to some readers!  Once we accept that the elided constituent and its antecedent can differ in form, it becomes reasonable to ask how large this difference can be. The answer in Rooth (1992), Fiengo and May (1994), Chung et al. (1995) and subsequent work is that the wiggle room is actually quite small: the elided constituent and its antecedent are allowed to differ only in the realization of inﬂectional morphology. Other than that, both constituents have to be syntactically and lexically isomorphic.
40642
If I have three consecutive words where each adjacent pair can be contracted, e.g. "I would have" or "You are not", is there a difference between the two possible contractions, e.g. "I would've" or "You aren't" versus "I'd have" or "You're not"? If so, when is each form preferred?  Does the preference depend on what comes after it (such as its part of speech), e.g. "You are not a fool" versus "You are not foolish" versus "You are not going to fool me?"
121379
What is the difference between  and ?
1887
In high school we learned to say "than I" and "as I" because you could potentially add an "am" to the end of the sentence.  Examples:  "She is smarter than I."  (Think: "...than I am.") "He is as tall as I."  (Think "...as I am.")  So analogously, shouldn't it be "like I" as well:  "He is sincere, just like I."  (Think: "... like I am.")  But universally, it seems that we use "like me".  Where does this reasoning break down?  Is there history here?