This is very similar to  but was not satisfactorily answered there.  It's very common for auto-checkers (e.g. Grammarly) to suggest a comma follow 'of course'.  For example, if I write "Of course I do", it underlines the word 'course' and suggests that it be changed to "Of course, I do".  But is that correct? It seems to me that "of course, I do" and "of course I do" could both be correct but mean something slightly different.  In the question linked above, user @HotLicks commented: Basic question: Do you pause anywhere when you say "Of course I don't"?  Possibly that was Socratically leading to the answer but I wanted to try to spell it out.  It seems to me that "Of course, I do" means something like, "on the other hand, this does apply to me." For example, I might say: "If I didn't have a bike, I wouldn't be able to ride to work. Of course, I do so I can."  On the other hand, "Of course I do!" means something like, "I am indignant that you would think that wouldn't apply to me." For example, I might say: "You think I don't have a bike? Of course I do!"  In the above paragraph, 'course' is underlined by Grammarly but the question is:     Is that really an illegitimate usage?
736
I am no native speaker and always confused about the comma in introductory phrases, in particular in prepositional phrases. Is there any hard rule when a comma must be set? If I make a google search for certain phrases, I often find both variants. Typical examples where I am not sure whether a comma must be set are:        First[ly][,] I must phone mother   In this case[,] we must...   For simple problems[,] the algorithm...   From Lemma 1.2[,] we obtain...   For a typical user[,] the algorithm...   In our theory[,] we...   A dark line on the horizon[,] the mountain range we were headed for seemed somehow not as threatening as when we had started out on the trip.   Avidly reading her novel[,] Jane did not notice that her stop was approaching.   To be sure[,] it is not easy to see a solution.   When you get to Rome[,] give me a ring.
113275
There's an old play on words that goes like so:     Grammar: The difference between helping your uncle Jack off a horse, and helping your uncle jack off a horse.    I've been told that it should instead be:     Grammar: The difference between helping your uncle, Jack, off a horse and helping your uncle jack off a horse.    Is either of these correct? Why?
9633
I just stumbled upon a :     My wife and I's seafood collaboration dinner. How does it look?   Sure enough, the top comment immediately points out that it should be "my wife's and my". However, a cross-post to the Grammar subreddit produced :     It's fine as it is written. "my wife and I" is a noun phrase, functioning as a subjective pronoun in the singular and made possessive with the apostrophe. It is exactly the same as "our".      It seems weird because you would never use "I's" on its own but it is not on its own here - it is part of a noun phrase.   That's a rather intriguing argument. Does it hold any water?
93392
I was taught that a colon never, ever follows a verb: it can follow only a complete sentence. Does anybody on this site support this type of usage? Can anybody provide links or examples of colons used after verbs? Have you ever used the colon in this manner in your writing?  I did some investigating this afternoon and unearthed some interesting information.  The Handbook of Good English and Merriam Webster's Standard American Style Manual support colons after to-be verbs. Awesome! This debunks the myth that colons cannot be used in this way. Does anybody agree with this? Two strong sources support this principle.  The Handbook of Good English by Edward D Johnson  The question was, did he like zucchini? is correct; the past tense of the question may seem to make it indirect, but it is still direct. Note that did is not capitalized; it could be, and some editors routinely capitalize in such a situation, but a capital is a surprise after a comma and in the example would give the question more independence and emphasis than the writer may want it to have. Note also the comma after was, needed to set up the question, almost as a weak colon.  We could, of course, actually use the colon and capitalize after it: The question was: Did he like zucchini? Or we could add quotation marks—which makes changing the tense desirable—and then would need no punctuation before the question The question was "Does he like zucchini?" These alternatives make the sentence rather stately, almost dramatic; the writer may prefer the smoother, more casual The question was, did he like zucchini?     Merriam Webster's Standard American Style Manual  The Interrupting Colon (as they call it)  Opinion varies regarding whether a colon should interrupt the grammatical continuity of a clause (as by coming between a verb and its objects). Although most style manuals and composition handbooks advise against this practice and recommend that a full independent clause precede the colon, the interrupting colon is common. It is especially likely to be used before a lengthy and complex list, in which case the colon serves to set the list distinctly apart from the normal flow of running text. With shorter or less complex lists, the colon is usually not used.  MWSASM Example:  Our programs to increase profitability include: continued modernization of our manufacturing facilities; consideration of distribution terminals; discontinuation of unprofitable retail outlets; and reorganization of our personnel structure, along with across-the-board staff reductions.
23010
a) The more I study, the less I learn. b) More I study, less I learn.  Could we rewrite the sentence shown under the letter a) in the form shown under the letter b) without breaking any grammatical rule? If not, why not?
62147
I just came across something I'd written a while ago that contained the phrase "follows close behind", and my first thought was that it was incorrect and should be "follows closely behind", i.e. to use an adverb describing how something is following.  The  for the two phrases seems to disagree with this instinct, though, with only slight differences between BE and AE, and the shorter phrase must've made it past my inner editor back when I first wrote it... maybe because "close" can also be used as an adverb?  So can both be used interchangeably? Is there a grammatical reason one should be considered "more correct" than the other, or is it just a case of one particular usage of a phrase having become more commonplace for some reason or other?
58683
I looked up a few grammar-teaching websites (in Chinese language). The website says many people do not use the phrase "A xxx of" correctly because they do not identify the subject of the phrase correctly.   The website says phrases like "A range of; A high percentage of" is singular, while "a number of; a group of; a couple of; a total of" is plural.  Therefore according to the website, the correct sentences should be as follows.     A wide range of courses is available. ("A wide range" is the subject)      A high percentage of peptides that are made of amino acids is present   in the sample. ("A high percentage" is the subject)      A number/ group/ couple of people were killed in the earthquake.("people" is the subject )       A total of 230 employees were laid off. ("employees" is the subject)   I don't get the pattern here. All of this looks (or should I use "look"?) arbitrary to me. In fact I thought this phrase is supposed to be arbitrary and whether the phrase is plural or singular should depend on the the person's own judgment.   How do I identify the correct subject in the "A xxx of" phrase?
89014
Sorry, I do not know the language terminology. Is this a case of nonessential appositive?  Which of the following sentence has a correct comma use? Comma before &quot;should&quot;  Importantly, two frail subgroups of stroke population, long-term residential care and cognitive impairment patients, should not be excluded from the rehabilitation.  No comma before &quot;should&quot;  Importantly, two frail subgroups of stroke population, long-term residential care and cognitive impairment patients should not be excluded from the rehabilitation.
58945
I have just learned from what I consider a reliable source, that the following sentence is correct:     One of us is wrong, aren't we?   I would never in my life have written this, but I am assured that   As I realize comments don't live forever I will quote the relevant parts:     oerkelens : So you  would really write One of us is wrong, aren't we? I guess by analogy you would not bat an eyelid at One of these balls is blue, aren't they?   Matt Эллен : yes, "Then one of us is wrong, aren't we?" is exactly how it would be written. Same for the balls.   Could someone please enlighten me how it is possible that the number in a question tag supposedly has to be in discordance with the subject of the main clause?  I admit that I am not the youngest any more, and my school days are long gone, but back in the days, I was taught that  1. a verb and its subject concord in number 2. a question tag concords with the subject of the main clause  I was given examples like:     It is warm today, isn't it?   We will be on time, won't we?   Mary is pretty, isn't she?   John isn't the brightest, is he?   Some people may notice that the subject of the main clause seems to determine every time the subject of the question tag. When the main clause subject is singular, so are verb and subject in the question tag.  I was under the impression that a) this made sense and b) this would be a general rule.  I fully realize that grammar does not have to make sense, so a) is immaterial. As for b), today I learned I was wrong :)  So when (and possibly why?) do we form question tags that are different in number from their main clause?   To exemplify, also the other example sentence that I used and was corrected on:     One of these balls is blue, isn't it? (so this is wrong)   One of these balls is blue, aren't they? (and this is correct)   As an afterthought, does this strange grammatical number mix-up only appear in question-tags, or should I always refer to singular subjects in the plural if certain conditions are met? And what are those conditions?  Which versions are correct?     One of the cars is broken, aren't they? They (the car(s?) that is(are?) broken) should be fixed.   One of the cars is broken, aren't they? It (the car that is broken) should be fixed.   One of us must be wrong, mustn't we? We (the one(s?) that is (are?) wrong) should make amends.   One of us must be wrong, mustn't we? He (the one that is wrong) should make amends.   (In the last one, they could of course be used as the singular they, but that would avoid the issue...)
41830
Am I correct to include a comma before "but instead" in the following example? I am not sure if the latter part of the sentence could be considered a main clause because there is no subject, so I am not sure if I am right or not.     The manual holds that women must not choose a programme themselves, but instead wait to be assigned to a module.
74667
I know that "as to", "on", and "of" are synonymous with "about", but I also know these words are not always interchangeable.  I was wondering if there are rules for picking between these prepositions.    There is still no news as to whether he will leave the company. (all four can be used with no change in meaning)  I don't know what you are talking about.  (only about and of can be used)  I heard of that from Jim. (only of and about) The speaker spoke on the issue of liquidity markets. (all four?)   Thanks for the help.
30570
My teacher was explaining how sometimes a comma isn't enough to make a sentence correct, and that sometimes you have to use a semicolon. I am having trouble figuring out when you should use which.   Can someone please explain?
91206
If there are two of something, can you say "all of" instead of "both of"?  For example, if an email is addressed to two people, and you start off with:     All,   This is to inform you, etc., etc.   ...   Regards,   Me   Is that at all appropriate?
7400
I was reviewing an English text as an exercise, English not being my mother tongue, and I came to this sentence:     (...) with the two other articles that conclude several things about customers e.g.. It is (...)   Note the double periods at the end of the sentence. Now I've got a gut feeling that this isn't right, but I can't find any rules about it. Is it even 'allowed' to put 'e.g.' at the end of a sentence, where something like 'etc.' would suffice?
7943
When I write something like this:     I am a man that is doing these things.   Is it correct to shorten it like this?     I am a man doing these things.   And does it require commas?
96479
I have a doubt about the following sentence how it should be made correctly.     "I'm happy when you're beside/s (of) me"   Beside or besides, me or of me?
100893
Recently I asked about   I shall come, not will  whether it could be used instead of  I will definitely come, not maybe  How I came to such a question.  Here   I asked about "Shall I win?" pointing that it could have some variants of understanding:  1) Shall I win? = Should I win? (suggestion)  2) Shall I win? = Will I win? (archaic with 1st person)  3) Shall I win? = is it 100% that I will win? (predestination\inevitability)  The excellent guy Mixolydian said either variant was possible, that it didn't matter what person you used "shall" with, it could have this "predestination\inevitability" anyway. Out of this we're getting that nowadays we can use "will" for simple future actions and "shall" for almost predicted (almost 100% surety of happening) future actions.  If I want to say to someone:  Don't be afraid, I will come anyway.  Don't get panicked, I will definitely come  Be sure, I will come in any case  I can use "shall" for it meanining an action into which I will put 100% effort:  I shall come!  And what if my original sentence is  Don't doubt, I will definitely come, not maybe or probably  Can I use  I shall come, not will  pointing that "shall" guarantees me putting all my strengths into it while "will" doesn't give any assuarance that I will do everything to finally come.  As I understood, it wasn't very easy to ask such a question because English was different everywhere - US, UK, Australie, Ireland etc. I heard it was acceptabse to use even "thee\thou" in Ireland or somewhere like that while all other world has already forgotten such words...