In the first book of the Harry Potter series we are told that Harry has piles of galleons inside his vault at Gringotts. Why didn't Harry draw a few gold coins from his safe and sold them in the muggle world to earn some money? That way he could've improved his quality of life in the muggle world quite a bit  I know the subject has been approached in other questions, but the closest answer I got was what would happen if Harry bought silver in the muggle world and sold it for gold in the magic world. I want to know what would happen exactly in this case.
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This is a follow-up question to   One reason Aunt Petunia mistreated Harry was that she did not know he was rich. If she knew, she would naturally have treated this golden goose nicely. Her retirement would be secured if Harry financially supported her in old age.  Why didn't Harry tell Aunt Petunia he was rich? Surely every boy wants to be treated nicely by his family.
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I was wondering how come Harry was able to do Lumos without touching his wand in OotP. I remember that he tried to do magic without his wand before (or afterwards), and he couldn't.  Sorry if this is a repeat question. I couldn't find the answer anywhere.
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We know that wizards in the Harry Potter universe are subject to regular physical harm (e.g. witness injuries from being hit by Bludgers or just colliding with things when playing Quidditch).  Therefore, it's almost a certainty that an average wizard would be vulnerable to, say, a bunch of bullets.   There may likely be spell(s) to protect from projectiles - witness Dumbledore's  deployed when Voldemort sent a bunch of glass at him during the  at the end of Harry Potter and the Order of the Phoenix (according to , possibly an unusually powerful Protego or the Silver shield).   But:   those spells obviously take effort/energy/time to cast (not everyone's Dumbledore) AND more likely than not most Death Eaters wouldn't recognize a Muggle gun for a threat (or realize what kind of threat) till too late.   So, the guns should at best allow an over-matched OotP member (e.g. Harry or Hermione) to greatly equalize the power between any regular Death Eaters and themselves, and even perhaps help against Voldemort (who can't be killed with a bullet, but, at best, would need to expend magical energy and time into conjuring a shield, and, at worst, be stopped/interrupted/driven off).  So I'm looking for an explanation - ideally in-universe, but possibly just some statement by JKR - of why the Muggle-born OotP - who are likely very much at ease AND familiar with Muggle technology and live in the late 20th century - do not use guns. Or, for that matter, ANY Muggle technology of the late 20th century? Cue Arthur C. Clarke's "indistinguishable from magic" meme.  Even if they are on some kind of idiotic moral crusade to never kill their opponents (even the Jedi aren't this dumb), given the time-frame, non-lethal weapons would have already existed, such as rubber bullets and tasers.  NOTE: Please don't offer the "if they do it, Death Eaters would start using guns as well" theory. First, Death Eaters would have used the guns if they knew how to, anyway. Second, the guns, like any "secret weapon", could be reserved for strategic battles, say the defense of Hogwarts in Deathly Hallows.    The origin of the question stems from two things.  First, Harry's fascination with all things that are different in the magical world (e.g. moving photographs), based on his knowledge of the Muggle material world, as well as the somewhat amusing cluelessness of the "Muggle artifacts" expert, Mr. Weasley, regarding Muggle items and how they work.   Basically, from the books, it's clear that the Wizarding world wouldn't know details about guns or what they are for or how they work.  The second thing is it's clear, at least initially, that wizards are afraid of Muggles finding out about them. Hence all the efforts to cloak their society (basically, do you REALLY want every Muggle gunning for you, even with Magic)? The idea of how control over the Muggle world seems to be more indirect, by Death Eaters asserting mind-control over the government. This means there's an implicit understanding by Death Eaters that they don't stand a chance against armed Muggles even given the magical disparity.  Considering Harry and Hermione's overall adaptability and inventiveness (and brains in the latter case), it's mind-boggling that the idea of fighting Death Eaters with modern technology completely slipped their mind. I mean, it's a basic part of human myth (see Steel vs. Magic themes in Conan books, or Beowulf, or heck, A Yankee in King Arthur's Court). So it's not like the idea of using technology against magic would be impossible to come up with. The question begs itself - why not? Considering the fact that Rowling generally tried to be logical and consistent in building the HP universe, I feel like there must be some in-universe explanation for this that I just didn't notice.   (in-universe answers only unless there are some authoritative out-of-universe statements that are part of canon).
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The information is all clearly there, since Harry and Ron, two 12-year-olds, were able to figure it out (with a bit of help from a petrified Hermione), thought at the time Aragog was much younger and smaller and wouldn't have been as easy to find, so maybe the "spiders flee before it" clue would have been lost, although to be honest it's not exactly as vital a piece of the puzzle as the others.  Dumbledore himself is obviously a very capable and intelligent Wizard, and after Myrtle died she came back as a ghost and was able to provide (admittedly limited) details of her own death.  I don't know about you, but I'd have thought at least someone would have tried to piece it together at the time, and it wouldn't have taken them long to figure out "Oh, she saw a pair of big yellow eyes after hearing a boy speak a funny language in the bathroom and dropped dead? Sounds like she might have heard somebody order a Basilisk to look her in the eyes in parseltongue", especially if the investigator in question was someone like Dumbledore.  Do we have any info on why nobody seemed to have found out anything in 50 years prior to Harry Potter (and, probably more importantly, Hermione Granger) turning up at Hogwarts?
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In the first Harry Potter book, Hagrid tells Harry that Gringotts is the only bank:     ‘They didn’ keep their gold in the house, boy! Nah, first stop fer us   is Gringotts. Wizards’ bank. Have a sausage, they’re not bad cold –   an’ I wouldn’ say no teh a bit o’ yer birthday cake, neither.’      ‘Wizards have banks?’      ‘Just the one. Gringotts. Run by goblins.’      Harry Potter and the Philosopher's Stone, Chapter 5: Diagon Alley.   In the second one, we learn that Gringotts has people working in others places of the world:     Bill was the oldest Weasley brother. He and the next brother, Charlie,   had already left Hogwarts. Harry had never met either of them, but   knew that Charlie was in Romania, studying dragons, and Bill in Egypt,   working for the wizards’ bank, Gringotts.      Harry Potter and the Chamber of Secrets, Chapter 4: At Flourish and Blotts.   It has been suggested on this very website that there is probably more than one currency in Harry Potter's wizarding world: . (Personally, I'm of the opinion that Rowling used a hyperbole in the passage discussed in that question).    So, was Hagrid exaggerating? Was he referring just to the United Kingdom? Is Gringotts really the one and only bank on Earth? And, more importantly, is there any canon answer that supports either hypothesis?    Possible answer:
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The Sorcerer's/Philosopher's Stone was removed from Gringotts to be placed under the most impenetrable of protections at Hogwarts under Dumbledore's custody. But it seems clear Dumbledore took protections which could have been impenetrable, and deliberately made them less so, such that at best they would only slightly slow down anybody trying to access the Stone, rather than just plain block them.  For example, after the Devil's Snare, you have a locked door enchanted such that it cannot be opened by any charm or other means except its own assigned key. That's a great protection, potentially an impassable barrier if the key is not available.  But the key is then left right there in front of the door in the same room.  At least the key is flying around the ceiling. But there are broomsticks right there in the same room, too.  The room with the fires front and back—that could also have been a solid defense—deadly fires that cannot be passed through unless you drink very specific potions tailored to each particular fire's properties.  Except that those potions providing safety are put right there in the same room.  At least, perhaps, they're surrounded by other bottles, some of which contain poison. With no way to know which bottle is safe, that could still almost be a solid protection.  Except that a piece of paper with a logic puzzle detailing exactly which bottles are which is put on the table with them.  Dumbledore always had reasons, and those reasons were always virtuous. What was he up to, deliberately weakening the protections in this way?
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We know, from Book Six, that Hogwarts has a financial aid for students in need. It's supposed to cover all expenses regarding materials and school supplies, so it certainly covers wands. So why didn't Ron simply apply for this fund when he broke his wand in Book Two, since his family could not afford a new one?  Seems absurd that no teacher would notice that Ron had a broken wand and inform him there's a school fund. Plot hole?  Obs.: Even if Ron could afford a new wand, one could ask how we would purchase it (you must experiment personally to find a wand that chooses you). It turns out that there's a local branch of Ollivander in Hogsmeade. I'm sure that, under those circumstances, a second-year student like Ron would be allowed to visit Hogsmeade to purchase a new wand.
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In the Harry Potter universe, is there any mention of an exchange student at Hogwarts or one of the Hogwarts students going on exchange at another school?  This happens all the time in the "muggle" school systems I'm sure it would happen in the wizarding schools as well.
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‘But you’re Muggles!’ said Mr Weasley delightedly. ‘We must have a drink! What’s that you’ve got there? Oh, you’re changing Muggle money. Molly, look!’ He pointed excitedly at the ten-pound notes in Mr Granger’s hand.   Chamber of Secrets - page 47 - UK Hardcover - chapter 4, Flourish and Blotts   So Gringotts exchanges Muggle money for Wizarding money. What do the Goblins do with the Muggle money after the exchange has been made? Is it possible they keep a stash of Muggle money on hand for reverse exchange purposes, or do they surreptitiously feed the money back into the Muggle economy?  What do Goblins do with Muggle money?
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This Q/A (  ) made me realize that I can't seem to remember a single HP wizard/witch who had a Muggle job with a Muggle company, aside from Kingsley's bodyguard cover as the Prime Minister's secretary.  Everyone whom I recall being mentioned as having a job is either employed in some magical company or the Ministry of Magic (which seems to employ more magical people than every other employer combined) or be self-employed - again economically interacting with wizards.  Am I merely forgetting someone, or was Kingsley really the only magically capable person with a paycheck from the Muggle world (which doesn't count since the job was a cover)?  UPDATE: Just to clarify - I didn't necessarily mean "working a Muggle job while using magic to help you" - it could also mean simply doing a Muggle job. So there's not necessarily a concern about Statute of Secrecy (plus, you can use the magic, say, to learn - e.g. Hermione could magick herself to learn how to do dentistry in 1 month or something). So no need to answer how having some wizard doing a Muggle job would be contrary to HP universe rules. I merely want to know if there's an example, NOT why there should't be one.
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‘Nice loud howl, Harry – exactly – and then, if you’ll believe it, I pounced – like this – slammed [the werewolf] to the floor – thus – with one hand, I managed to hold him down – with my other, I put my wand to his throat – I then screwed up my remaining strength and performed the immensely complex Homorphus Charm – he let out a piteous moan – go on, Harry – higher than that – good – the fur vanished – the fangs shrank – and he turned back into a man. Simple, yet effective – and another village will remember me forever as the hero who delivered them from the monthly terror of werewolf attacks.’   Gilderoy Lockhart - Chamber of Secrets - chapter 10 - The Rogue Bludger   Yeah, yeah. I know: consider the source! We all know Gilderoy Lockhart is a fake and a fraud in that he took credit for other heroic wizards' work. However, it occurred to me that in order to sell his books, he would have had to have written accurate and real spells and charms and potions, etc, into the books, or else everyone would have known right away that he was a turkey.   So is it possible there's an actual Homorphus Charm that will change a werewolf back into a human before the werewolf's moon cycle is over? If so, why on earth would they not have used it on Remus Lupin (for Lupin's safety) or Fenrir Greyback (for the community's safety)?
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I know that the Sorting Hat wanted to for other reasons, but if he made the right decision then why did he ever want to? The Sorting Hat made it very clear that he chose the right house, then why did he ever consider putting Harry in Slytherin?
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I have seen many discussions here about locations where Voldemort hid his Horcruxes. The fans settle down with this: Voldemort chose those locations where he himself could easily reach.  Why didn't Voldemort just vanish his Horcruxes using Fidelius Charm and became Secret Keeper himself? This way only and only he could reach it (making him 100% immortal). And, there's no flaw to it.
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In Harry Potter and The Goblet of Fire, when Mr. Weasley and Mr. Diggory are leading a group to the Quidditch World Cup, Mr. Weasly explains:     I believe there’s a handy wood they’re using as the Apparition point. For those who don’t want to Apparate, or can’t, we use Portkeys. They’re objects that are used to transport wizards from one spot to another at a prearranged time. You can do large groups at a time if you need to.   However, this happens at the end of Chapter 31, The Third Task:      “On three, right?” said Harry. “One — two — three —”He and Cedric both grasped a handle.Instantly, Harry felt a jerk somewhere behind his navel. His feet had left the ground. He could not unclench the hand holding the Triwizard Cup; it was pulling him onward in a howl of wind and swirling color, Cedric at his side.   So, how come the Triwizard Cup didn't transport the holder at a prearranged time, but at the first touch?  The canonical answer might be "you just put a charm so it will transport the first holder instantaneously", but if it was so easy/simple, many wizards would have done it to get to the World Cup before they were supposed to (or after! if they didn't want to wait for so many days...).
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Are there either examples, or a mention of this having happened, of students permanently transferring from one magical school to another in Potterverse?  Canon only please (books/JKR/Pottermore).  Please note that I am only asking about transfers, e.g. you must already be studying in one school. Therefore an example of Malfoys considering sending Draco to Durmstrang is not in scope, since that happened before he attended Hogwarts. Also, guest-studying during Tri-Wizard doesn't count as it wasn't permanent.  Also, if the answer is a "no", please provide evidence (other than "well I read the books before and I don't remember a single case like that", unless you have eidetic memory) from entire canon.
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So has JKR ever mentioned, or is it indicated anywhere in canon why Fawkes did not come to save Dumbledore when he was confronted by Draco and the four other Death Eaters on the Astronomy Tower on that fateful night in Chapter 27 of the Half-Blood Prince?  There are several instances where Fawkes was timely in saving his master and Harry.  I know there's an out-of-universe answer to every question on books (Dumbledore had to die so that Harry can continue on this path alone, albeit aided by Ron and Hermione). I'm not looking for any of that please.  Was Dumbledore simply prepared to die that night?
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I recently read the final book of the series. At one point was the vault heist, where the goblin Griphook runs off with the Sword of Gryffindor. Yet near the end of the book, Neville Longbottom suddenly has the sword and uses it to defeat the snake Nagini.  How could this be possible? Griphook wanted the sword because it was goblin-made, so I doubt he would given it over to any non-goblin. How does Neville suddenly get the sword?