In the Last Jedi      Leia gets blown into space and then force-flies (like Mary Poppins) from space back into the Raddus. Leia's survival is answered here:    There seems to be plenty of SW canon for force-flying here:   This post implies Vader didn't even use the force to throw Palpatine down the shaft:    So why didn't Emperor Palpatine force-fly to stop himself falling down the shaft in Return of the Jedi?
123947
Palpatine tossed around Senate "pods" with no problem, Yoda picked up X-wings and such, and there are many other examples of pretty impressive levitation feats. So why couldn't Sidious/Palpatine stop himself from falling to his death? Why couldn't Maul levitate himself away instead of falling to his (assumed for a while until The Clone Wars) death?  Is it a Sith thing?
773
When Mace Windu and the 3 other Jedi Masters confront Chancellor Palpatine as the Sith Lord, Darth Sidious unveils himself and attacks the Jedi. In one move he takes out Agen Kolar, who wasn't even facing Darth Sidious.  How did that happen? Was this some kind of special move Sidious deployed to disorient the Jedi?
102313
Couldn't Vader save his son and continue being a Sith Lord? Couldn't he have let Luke go and basically become the Emperor and have the Galaxy to himself? I don't think killing the Emperor to save your son will automatically convert you to the light side. Enlighten me.
46640
Anakin Skywalker was known as Darth Vader (this was already his Sith name) after the creation of the Galactic Empire.  So why did Palpatine remain "Emperor Palpatine"? Why didn't he embrace his persona as Darth Sidious?  I started wondering after reading one of the answers to
40947
In :     Artoo butts the golden droid over the edge and steps off himself, tumbling toward the sand.   But in :     ARTOO uses his rocket jets to fly up and into the factory.   Why didn't R2-D2 use his jets in RotJ instead of ending feet up in the sand?  Update: I am looking for an in-universe explanation.
36384
Towards the end of "The Empire Strikes Back", Luke escapes from Darth Vader by jumping down a chute... which opens up into open air, and leaves him dangling on a mast...  Why does Cloud City have these death traps in the first place?
45820
In Return of the Jedi, when trying to sneak into the base on a shuttle, Luke said he senses Darth Vader's presence and said he shouldn't have come lest he jeopardize the mission. Darth Vader also sensed Luke, but let him in anyways. Also, Yoda and Obi-Wan could detect the Force in young Anakin.  So if Jedi and Sith can detect each other, why couldn't they detect Senator Palpatine to begin with? It seems like a giant plot hole.
55277
This is a two part question, with the two parts being mirror images to each other.  Is the ability to use the Force a requirement, for some reason, to using a lightsaber?  And if so, why?  And on the other side, on Hoth, when Luke is hanging in ice in the wampa's cave, he uses the Force to bring his lightsaber into his hand.  But, as best I can remember and find, the Jedi always use a lightsaber like a "real" sword and keep it in their hands (although I think there's one case in a movie where a lightsaber is thrown to cut down support for a walkway).  Can a lightsaber be wielded with the Force only?  For instance, when Anakin's hand was cut off, could he have controlled the movement of his lightsaber the way Vader did with the objects he Force-tossed objects at Luke in the Cloud City?  While that's two questions (that I think are closely related), another way to put it might be to ask, "How closely is the use of the Force related to wielding a lightsaber?"  Addendum: No, this is NOT a duplicate of .  Note I am the one who asked both questions.  I asked both because they cover different groups.  See the Venn diagram.  I allow room for possible members of Sith and Jedi who do not use the Force.  (Hey, in the Star Wars universe, almost anything can happen.)  If that is not possible, then just imagine the black box not intercepting either or both of the Jedi and Sith boxes.  One can be non-aligned (with Jedi or Sith) and still use the Force and it's possible, at some point, we may find some odd story about a Jedi or Sith who cannot use the Force.  (There may be some story about how such a person is not felt by Force users, so is valuable to one side or the other.)  This question overs the black box.  The other question covers the green box.  Yes, there is overlap, but there are also distinct separate groups covered by each question that are not covered in the other question.
86685
In Star Wars: The Force Awakens, before the battle between Kylo Ren and Rey we watch Kylo trying to force pull Luke's blue lightsaber but without success. Now, in The Last Jedi, Kylo uses the Force to move Luke's Lightsaber and      kills Supreme Leader Snoke.    What has changed and why can Kylo move the lightsaber now?
22353
In almost every canon (that is, visual) source, Force users typically wave a hand to invoke the Force to move or manipulate objects, people and thoughts. I get out-of-universe this is a visual cue that the Force is being used, but in-universe is it strictly necessary?  (The only exception I can think of is when Luke is training on Dagobah and is balancing rocks while standing on one hand with Yoda on his foot. He doesn't appear to be waving his hand to move the rocks.)  Is this addressed anywhere in-universe, even in Legends?
56902
We know (from the accidents that happened between 1999-2005) that      The Sith rely on their passion for their strength. They think inward, only about themselves.   and we also know that     Always two there are, no more, no less. A master and an apprentice.   And from the EU, we know that each Sith apprentice will (try to) kill and replace their master at some point, in order to become the one who bundles the entirety of the Sith power (so to say).    Q1: Given these points, why do Sith bother to take up apprentices at all? It doesn't make sense to pass on their knowledge of the dark side, because they only care about themselves, and it would also contradict this philosophy to teach competition that will endanger their power and ultimately their life.    Q2: As a special case of this question in The Empire Strikes Back, Vader tries to turn Luke by saying     Luke, you can destroy the Emperor. He has foreseen this. It is your destiny. Join me, and together we can rule the galaxy as father and son.   (emphasis by me)  Now, the same question rises: If the Emperor has foreseen that Luke can destroy him, why would he want Luke to become a Sith?
111627
In new canon novels, it is shown that Palpatine has contingency plans in the event of his own premature death at the hands of his enemies. In the case of the Rebel Alliance it comes in the form of Operation Cinder:     It is intended to be issued in the event of the Emperor's death - Imperial forces are to use climate-control tech like satellites etc to render countless worlds, including Rebel-sympathetic ones like Naboo, permanently inhospitable in retaliation to the Rebels' murder of the Emperor.   It is known that Palpatine is disappointed with how Vader's half-machine transformation at the end of RotS has significantly diminished his potential in the Force and suitability to be his successor. It is certainly the reason why he pressed on with plans to turn Luke to the dark side by defeating and killing Vader: Luke is essentially the same as the good old Anakin that Palpatine had wanted - the perfect apprentice that Vader no longer is.  All in all, Palpatine feels Vader is not infallible and is eventually disposable. Considering he has some form of contingency for the Empire's future in the event of his own death, I don't see how having one for the Sith's future is not even more crucial, especially considering his impression of Vader, his immediate successor. So, does Palpatine have plans for the Sith Order's survival in the event of his own death, whether to Vader in accordance to the Rule of Two or otherwise, or of both Sith Lords' deaths as has happened at the end of RotJ?
92869
The resistance is attacks the Starkiller Base with what appears to be pretty small time ammunition even by modern earth missiles, which requires a long running sequence of repeated flybys.  The objective, IIRC was to destroy a critical piece of machinery on the surface which would then destabilize the entire planet/weapon (feel free to correct in edit if I remember incorrectly).  OK cool, but then why the force wouldn't they just drop a nuclear bomb on it?  Have nuclear weapons been used any other time in Star Wars (including EU), or, like smart phones, have they just not been invented in that world?
89188
Isn't the point of the Death Star that you can use its lasers to destroy any planet or capital ship nearby? Then how could the Empire use the Death Star if it has to stay close to Endor at all times, because its shield generator is there? It seems that the Rebels just need to wait for the Death Star to move away from Endor and render itself vulnerable.
70401
At the beginning of A New Hope, Princess Leia has just received the stolen plans for the Death Star. Yet rather than take these plans directly to the Rebel base on Yavin IV, she first stops off to pick up Obi-Wan Kenobi. From dialogue in the movie we also learn that, after picking-up Kenobi, she is supposed to go to Alderaan to meet-up with her adoptive father Bail Organa. Presumably then everybody would proceed to Yavin IV from there.  If we take into account the events of Rogue One, Bail Organa told Leia (offscreen) to go to Tatooine to get Kenobi, however this was done before Leia ended-up with the Death Star plans. You would have thought, given the change in circumstances, she would determine that it's more important to get the plans to Rebel command than stop off at Tatooine first. Especially as, at this point, she would have known about the Death Star's destruction of Jedha.  Have I missed any movie dialogue that describes or implies why Leia thought it more important to go to Tatooine, then on to Alderaan, before taking the Death Star plans to Yavin IV? Or is there anything in any of the books or supplementary material to explain it?  Of course if she had gone straight to Yavin IV with the plans then the original movie would have been very different!
53141
I know there are similar questions out there, but from what I know the new Princess Leia comic deals IMMEDIATELY after the award ceremony and the ensuing evacuation.  My question:   Why not before?  (I know the real-world answer) they knew the planet was going to get destroyed.  Could it have been an act of loyalty to rebel high command?  Were they worried the Death Star would feint using it's super laser and try a ground assault (so they needed the troops)?  Or is there room for us simply to assume they did a partial evacuation, and then either just had the ceremony with the , or the evacuees returned to help break down the equipment?
16895
This question is related to "The Last Jedi":  The maneuvre that vice admiral Holdo (with the purple hair) uses towards the end of the film seems remarkably effective.   It seems that it would have worked pretty well much earlier. Especially as two other ships were just allowed to run out of fuel and be destroyed.  It seems doing it earlier with different assets would have incurred less losses. Yet nobody seemed to consider it. Any in universe reason why?