I am a non-native speaker and I was just wondering whether it is stylistically and grammatically correct to write something like  "smart me made the same mistake again" or "Intelligent me could not solve the riddle"  is this similar to saying "fifteen-year-old me?" Can I say "my smart self" instead ?
123554
I'm trying to find out how come we say lucky me and stupid us rather than lucky I and stupid we. My understanding is that this is not a recent invention, but a relic from the distant past where it was a dative construction. However, I don't see the reason for using any case other than the nominative in this construction to begin with.        He went surfing. → Lucky him went surfing.   I got pulled over. → Stupid me got pulled over.   They bought a house. → Thoughtless them bought a house.      This is rather intriguing. After thinking about it for a while, I couldn't come up with any other language, Germanic or otherwise, where simply introducing an adjective would dictate a change of grammatical case. This appears to be an English peculiarity. How far can it be traced back? Can anyone comment on its background?
72636
I wrote “I know all these stuff; I don’t have to go over them again” in my writing-exam paper and the teacher corrected it to read, “I know all this stuff; I don’t have to go over it again.”  The teacher is Irish so I don’t think he would make a mistake but I think even if the first one (these) was wrong, the second one (them) should have stayed the same. Am I right?
84497
I have seen people say  'I am your age' instead of saying 'I am of your age'. Similarly, a sentence like 'you have done this your whole life' instead of 'you have done this for your whole life'. My question is: why for/of is omitted? Any gramatical reason?  Thanks in anticipation
90277
He staggered in, late as usual, his hair this way and his collar the other. His socks were as mismatched as were his principles. I thought to myself, here comes yet another disastrous sales meeting.  It seems to me too much to write :     I thought to myself 'Here comes yet another disastrous sales meeting'.   The Authorised Version deliberately did away with punctuated speech, retaining only the capital to indicate the beginning of a quote but leaving out quotation marks.  Can I therefore do the same in common writing, for my thoughts ?     I thought to myself, Here comes yet another disastrous sales meeting.   I cannot find another question on EL&amp;U which covers this.
89247
I came across an English learner writing     It snowed hard Monday.   After saying that it didn't snow on Friday and Saturday.  It didn't quite feel right to me.  I'd be okay with     It snowed hard.   or     It snowed Monday.   Is it okay for there to be two things ("hard" and "Monday") modifying the snowing without an "on" breaking things up a bit?
66709
“You are” vs. “you're” — what is the difference between them?  I get confused between the two a lot. I want to understand how to use them appropriately, because I hate making mistakes.
66675
I've been told to put "I" at the last part of the subject, as in "My sister and I walk to school." Is saying "I and my sister walk to school." wrong?
67890
I am a Japanese teacher of English who is making a teaching material for my students. I would like to know whether the following usage would be totally accepted in school grammar. To put my question in other words, would a very grammar-sensitive person allow the following usage (in bold font)?  A: What is your favorite movie? B: It is Titanic created in 1997 by James Cameron.  So, the point here is whether you can grammatically modify a proper noun with a participle. I know it's totally okay to write something like "a movie created in 1997 by James Cameron," where participle modifies a common noun, but I'm not sure if the same is allowed for proper nouns.  Thank you, Tom
39069
I believe the sentence in the title is grammatically correct.   Recently I've seen too many people writing it this way:     I'm not sure what is the right way.   Is it grammatically correct as well? Maybe in a different sense? Or simply misuse by non-native speakers?
121728
He was almost as bad at English as me. He was almost as bad at English as I.   The first one sounds better as-is, but not when you change the second one to He was almost as bad at English as I was.  Which is correct?
71716
I just had a strange flashback to a conversation I had when I was in high school, with a man who was regarded by many members of a particular online community as having an impressive degree of knowledge of the English language.  The conversation centered on a claim this man made that I found very difficult to accept. I had made some remark involving the difference between it's and its (a distinction which I trust is quite well-known to the majority of users on this site), to which he had contributed, mostly phrased as an amusing aside, that there was one more word I hadn't mentioned: its', with the apostrophe at the end.  I originally thought he might have been joking, but we ended up debating this rather fervently. I seem to recall that I kept demanding he use the word in an example sentence, but he either could not or refused to do so. Yet he maintained that it is a word.  Is this true? I must concede I haven't put a lot of thought into it just now; but at the time, I was perplexed by the very suggestion that it could be a word (what could it mean?), and at the moment I can't really think of any scenario where it would make any sense.
2746
I occasionally use "retarded" when chastising myself or other friends. I know it's not Politically Correct, but am I only allowed to say stupid? How long before we can't say that anymore?   Other words like "ignorant" don't work well because well, I don't like that word because it's misunderstood (even though it works well for how I say retarded . . for me it's like if you don't know something you should know).
19104
I was listening to Eminem's song Stan. I noticed in one verse he says:        But she don't know you like I know you Slim...      At first I didn't believe my ears, but when I read out the lyrics I got astonished. I further searched on Google and found on some other forums that this type of incorrect grammatical usage is either intentional (for some linguistic reasons) or the speaker is uneducated!       So my question is:      What is the purpose of this type of intentional misuse of grammar? How does it appear to native English speakers?      Thank you.
29328
A student has written:     Still, I have already been aware of most of the information even    before watching the video.   It doesn't feel right and I would normally use a past simple here. I'm on my two hundredth script and losing my ability to reason, or to adequately explain to myself why it should be past simple (I think it's 'before' as this puts the time as completed, so he can't use the present perfect notion of unfinished time). What I need to know is:   Should it be simple past of present perfect here, or doesn't it matter?  Why/why not?   All help gratefully received.
102560
Examples:   "I did go home" instead of "I went home". "We did make some tea" instead of "We made some tea". "I do listen to future garage music" instead of "I listen to future garage music".   Is it correct?
21101
I did commented on your post.       Is this a correct sentence? As you know that we often make emphatic sentences by using "did"but when we make them we use 1st form but here 2nd form is used.  I am just confused.
20055
I was reading about various terms for incorrect words, but they didn't seem to fit.  I saw a post where someone said "what do you like to do when you're board?".  That kind of thing.  Also, would that be considered a mistake in grammar?  I didn't think so, but my friend insists it is.  I'm not sure if there even is a word for that kind of mistake, but was just curious about it.  Thanks!