Do we need &quot;to be&quot;(or a form of 'to be') before adjectives? For example:   I want my hair black.  I want my hair to be black.      This is ready to publish.  This is ready to be published.      I would like this short.  I would like this to be short.    Would you tell me which of each pair is correct and explain the syntax behind it, please. Thank you.
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If you have a more illustrative title, feel free to change it. I searched but I couldn't find one.   This may be an easy and trivial question; if so, I am sorry.  What are the differences between these two sentences?     These two guys seem to be inseparable.      These two guys seem inseparable.   I can intuitively say that the latter one is grammatically wrong. Could you please explain?  EDIT: What I think is John Lawler's and FumbleFingers' answers are worth to read. The reason why I  noted that someone who wants to learn the answer of this question, accidentally misses FumbleFingers' answer.
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Need we add that it be usable in the woods?   1, albeit an old one, contains an example of this odd way of writing. Where I would expect  "..that it would/could/may/should/... be", there is nothing! I feel there is some lost information in here.   Is this an ordinary way to express oneself nowadays, or is it more archaic, or "upper class"? Is there only one meaning to "it be"?   A Personal Computer for Children of All Ages - Alan C. Kay, Proceedings of the ACM National Conference, Boston Aug. 1972
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She is a well-developed, tall, young woman. She is a tall, young, well-developed woman.   In the sentences, which order of adjectives is correct? I'd like to know the rule for placing various adjectives.
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Pre-determined or predetermined? I've seen both forms. Are both right, or only one of them? Is there any dialect difference between AE and BE? Do the same rules apply for all words starting with pre prefix?
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I've always wondered why some people add a to after Why when framing a question. I have always wished to know this, but I keep forgetting to ask and today I came across a tweet that made me post this question here. The sentence that I came across on my twitter feed is:  Why To Treat Your Product Like It's Finished?   Isn't it more appropriate to ask:  Why Treat Your Product Like It's Finished?   I know that all the words in the sentence above have a capital letter in front because this was a title of a post. But that is not the point.  My question is: When do we need to use a preposition like to after a question word like Why? Are there any grammatical rules regarding this usage? If so, what are they?  Why To Treat Your Product Like It&#39;s Finished (Even Before It Is) &mdash; Buffer (@buffer)
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I often hear people saying what kind of [singular noun] rather than what kind of a [singular noun].  Are we not supposed to use an article (a) before noun?
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You're too clever a man to imagine this.   The above sentence was , a man of excellent rhetorical skills.   Since he said it, I doubt it's wrong, grammatically. But, I wonder if there is an explanation for this. Because adjectives always come after the article not before it. e.g. You're a clever man.   How could this be, grammatically?
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In so-called memes and vines, I've seen sentences such as "People be like", "Boys be like", and so on. Every time, I wondered how be was in those particular sentences. Grammatically, how can be be in such sentences in that way?  My assumption, is it like subjunctive [should] be? Are is and are not used because using them would make the sentence determinative, whereas [should] be would make the sentence suggest possibility?  Thanks.
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Are words like "yesterday" and "tomorrow" considered nouns, adjectives, or even adverbs?  I'm getting mixed signals from several references.  In a case like "I have an important meeting tomorrow," it seems as if they're nouns.  But what about "Yesterday afternoon?"
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Our clothes sell so well in this country that we have no need to export.   Two questions.        Our clothes sell so well in this country...      Is this part of the sentence a noun phrase although it has two words which are not nouns (so and well)? Can a noun phrase have adverbs and adjectives in it? Please explain.        We have no need to export.      The second part of the sentence does not show any tense like present or past or future. Sometimes sentences have no situation, like present or past as in "all is well" or "everything is good". Does in such cases in sense of grammar we should use "be" verbs or sentence will be used as the present simple tense? What are the rules of grammar in such situations?
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According to one article reference book, it says we can omit articles (a, an, the) in front of the second, third,… nouns. Is it really acceptable from native English speakers' point of view? Is it really grammatically correct and allowed in writing? The book says it is so clear that each item (noun) is a different item, so we do not need to repeat the article.  Example 1:     I bought a lemon, melon, and pineapple.   Example 2:     I asked her to pass me the pen, eraser, and pencil sharpener.   I understand we can definitely place "a" in front of each noun, but could placing the articles (a, the) be redundant?
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I'm writing a leaflet for children from primary schools who will visit our school.  Is it correct to write:     the "amerigo vespucci" school is waiting for you!!!!   Is the use of the definite article correct in this case? I am defining which school is waiting for them, I'm saying we and no others but us are willing to meet them?
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Let's have breakfast    Let's have a good breakfast      I've learned that indefinite articles aren't used before uncountable nouns, so why is a used before the adjective "good" here?    Is there an exception to the rules or is it wrong?
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She has five kids. I can imagine how busy she would be.   Is the use of would be right in this sentence? What about      She has five kids. I can imagine how busy she is.   Are both correct? Do they mean different things?
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I admit. The articles are the most difficult things I find in this language but I'm learning and I'm better than before! I've been reading about the articles in several authentic books and have a question now.      Does the adjective 'same' ALWAYS have the definite article 'the'?    In fact, looking at complexities of using the articles for zillions of nouns, I feel at least this word -same will make me sure using the article the if this is the case! So, next time on, I'll never make a mistake by not putting the before same.
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He is arguably the best actor of his generation   In the above sentence the adverb is placed just after "be" Can we use adverb after "be"? If we can use then please explain properly because I have studied that adverb can be used before adjective and adverb .
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I thought I heard my teacher said: 'Don't construct a sentence without a verb.'  Is there such rule in english grammar?     She looks like 70 years old. Perhaps older.   How about the question above? Is it correct? Is there any book that can be used references for wide range of topics in grammar(including syntax, morphology et cetera)? I have finished oxford grammar in use recently and think it wasn't enough for me.