How did Harry's watch work in Hogwarts as magic is supposed to render Muggle inventions like electricity and batteries incapable of normal functioning?
124026
Classes and lessons at Hogwarts are presumably scheduled at fixed times of day. The first class might start, for example at nine in the morning.  To be on time for one's lessons, it is therefore crucial to know the current time but we know that electric watches of course do not work at Hogwarts because of all the magical interference. Are there magic watches? Is there maybe a spell to tell the time?  How do people at Hogwarts usually tell the time?
34930
Sirius Black and a few Death Eaters escape Azkaban and seem to operate after that with their wands intact.  How come?  If a mere expulsion from Hogwarts entails wand destruction (as happened with Hagrid), shouldn't an Azkaban sentence entail the same?  And even if we imagine that the perceived impossibility of escape from Azkaban made it seem unnecessary to destroy the wand, this would apply to Sirius but not to Death Eaters.  PS: Two comments suggested that the escapees acquired new wands. It would be nice to have a more definitive answer than just a suggestion or a list of possibilities. Thanks.  PPS: Returning the personal property to a released prisoner is one thing, but the wand is a different matter: this is usually the tool of the crime, and I don't see how it can be argued that it should be returned and not destroyed. Again, Hagrid had his wand destroyed and he was not even sentenced to Azkaban.  PPPS: Maybe wand destruction is only done for non-fully-qualified wizards?
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We know that wizards in the Harry Potter universe are subject to regular physical harm (e.g. witness injuries from being hit by Bludgers or just colliding with things when playing Quidditch).  Therefore, it's almost a certainty that an average wizard would be vulnerable to, say, a bunch of bullets.   There may likely be spell(s) to protect from projectiles - witness Dumbledore's  deployed when Voldemort sent a bunch of glass at him during the  at the end of Harry Potter and the Order of the Phoenix (according to , possibly an unusually powerful Protego or the Silver shield).   But:   those spells obviously take effort/energy/time to cast (not everyone's Dumbledore) AND more likely than not most Death Eaters wouldn't recognize a Muggle gun for a threat (or realize what kind of threat) till too late.   So, the guns should at best allow an over-matched OotP member (e.g. Harry or Hermione) to greatly equalize the power between any regular Death Eaters and themselves, and even perhaps help against Voldemort (who can't be killed with a bullet, but, at best, would need to expend magical energy and time into conjuring a shield, and, at worst, be stopped/interrupted/driven off).  So I'm looking for an explanation - ideally in-universe, but possibly just some statement by JKR - of why the Muggle-born OotP - who are likely very much at ease AND familiar with Muggle technology and live in the late 20th century - do not use guns. Or, for that matter, ANY Muggle technology of the late 20th century? Cue Arthur C. Clarke's "indistinguishable from magic" meme.  Even if they are on some kind of idiotic moral crusade to never kill their opponents (even the Jedi aren't this dumb), given the time-frame, non-lethal weapons would have already existed, such as rubber bullets and tasers.  NOTE: Please don't offer the "if they do it, Death Eaters would start using guns as well" theory. First, Death Eaters would have used the guns if they knew how to, anyway. Second, the guns, like any "secret weapon", could be reserved for strategic battles, say the defense of Hogwarts in Deathly Hallows.    The origin of the question stems from two things.  First, Harry's fascination with all things that are different in the magical world (e.g. moving photographs), based on his knowledge of the Muggle material world, as well as the somewhat amusing cluelessness of the "Muggle artifacts" expert, Mr. Weasley, regarding Muggle items and how they work.   Basically, from the books, it's clear that the Wizarding world wouldn't know details about guns or what they are for or how they work.  The second thing is it's clear, at least initially, that wizards are afraid of Muggles finding out about them. Hence all the efforts to cloak their society (basically, do you REALLY want every Muggle gunning for you, even with Magic)? The idea of how control over the Muggle world seems to be more indirect, by Death Eaters asserting mind-control over the government. This means there's an implicit understanding by Death Eaters that they don't stand a chance against armed Muggles even given the magical disparity.  Considering Harry and Hermione's overall adaptability and inventiveness (and brains in the latter case), it's mind-boggling that the idea of fighting Death Eaters with modern technology completely slipped their mind. I mean, it's a basic part of human myth (see Steel vs. Magic themes in Conan books, or Beowulf, or heck, A Yankee in King Arthur's Court). So it's not like the idea of using technology against magic would be impossible to come up with. The question begs itself - why not? Considering the fact that Rowling generally tried to be logical and consistent in building the HP universe, I feel like there must be some in-universe explanation for this that I just didn't notice.   (in-universe answers only unless there are some authoritative out-of-universe statements that are part of canon).
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From my memory of the last Harry Potter movie I saw, I've seen many wizards cast spells without saying the spell at all.  During the final battle in Hogwarts, many wizards just swung their wands and their enemies were knocked out. I am 100% sure about this!  The most remarkable spells were the ones that emit a green or red beam in the final battle of Harry Potter against Voldemort when they pushed their beams towards each other.  So, the question is, are they cheating? Because, unless there are wordless spells, they must say the words for a spell.
63295
What is Divination really like when it is not just a school subject, but is practically applied by a competent Wizard?  Is there a definition of what counts as Divination in the Harry Potter universe?  Most of what we know about Divination in the Harry Potter universe is through the school courses of Professor Trelawney and Firenze, plus a few remarks by Professor Dumbledore and Professor McGonagall.  I don't believe these give a fair representation of Divination in the real world, just like how the school curriculum of the first three years of Harry's Defense Against the Dark Arts class wouldn't tell much about how Defense Against the Dark Arts is used by adults.  To give some specifics, which of the following (if any) are Divination?   Professor Snape's task of finding out about the Dark Lord's plan. Professor Dumbledore finding out lots of details about the past of the Dark Lord. Professor Dumbledore coercing Kreacher to tell him what's happened to Sirius.   Professor Dumbledore detecting magic in the cave. The visions Harry had, showing what the Dark Lord or his Snake were doing. The spell used to reveal the last spell cast by a wand, as seen in Goblet of Fire. The Sorting Hat determining the personality traits of a young wizard. The Specialis Revelio spell cast by Hermione on the Riddle diary. The examination the Ministry of Magic has done on the objects Professor Dumbledore has left in his will to the trio. The tests done on the Firebolt that Harry got as a gift, ensuring that it is not jinxed. The Homenium Revelio spell cast by Hermione to find humans in the Black manor. What the Marauder's Map does. The two real prophecies of Professor Trelawney.   I have guesses about how some of the above are Divination and some aren't, but they are all based on what I've heared of divination outside the Harry Potter universe.  There is, however, probably some material in the books, interviews, Pottermore, or other resources that I don't know about.  To address a particular argument you might give about the prophecies of Professor Trelawney, recall that Professor Dumbledore wanted to keep Trelawney in Hogwarts to protect her, after the first prophecy and the immediately following events.  The way he insisted that she stay after she was sacked from her teaching position (in the Order of the Phoenix) clearly shows this, together with what he says about the matter in Half-Blood Prince chapter 20:     I cannot ask Firenze to return to the forest, where he is now an outcast, nor can I ask Sybill Trelawney to leave. Between ourselves, she has no idea of the danger she would be in outside the castle. She does not know – and I think it would be unwise to enlighten her — that she made the prophecy about you and Voldemort, you see.   This means that Professor Dumbledore may have applied Trelawney regardless of how good Divination teacher he thought she was, and regardless of whether the prophecy is Divination or not.  Can you give other examples of Divination used by Wizards, other than the ones related to school courses?  This is a speciesist question, I'm specifically asking only about human Wizards, not about divination practiced by Centaurs or House Elves or Goblins or other creatures.  Remark.  The original reason why this question came up is a disagreement in the thread
7438
I am searching for a book series ... people were transfer from Earth by way of being reduced to a mathematical pattern and recreated on the other end.  Some people appear as "wizards" on the receiving planet, turns out they just had a connection to the computer and the computer was materializing the object by using the "object" formula and using energy to mater transfer from an energy universe.  I think there were multiple books in the series and I seem to remember that the main character may have undergone a magical sex change at some point.
39849
At the beginning of , someone (who I think is Newt Scamander) says the spell "Lumos Maxima". The problem is that Lumos Maxima is not a canon spell. The spell that everyone uses in the books is Lumos. (Rowling has said "That's showbiz!" when asked about the movies versions of the spells.)  A fact that further complicated matters is that JKR said  that she "wrote the entire script".  So why does Fantastic Beasts have Lumos Maxima?  (An out of universe answer is fine, I'm more of trying to figure out where this movie stands canonwise than trying to mesh two incompatible things.)
39061
As the title asks, why didn't the basilisk bite received in the Chamber of Secrets destroy the Horcrux inside the bitten person?   Yes, I know Fawkes quite quickly healed the bite wound with his phoenix tears, but when Harry used the basilisk fang to destroy Tom Riddle's diary the destruction of that Horcrux was immediate. When Ron hit the locket with the Sword of Gryffindor, it was destroyed immediately. Although the destruction of the ring occurred off-page, Dumbledore used the Sword of Gryffindor to destroy it, so presumably, like the locket, it was gone right away. Nagini died straightaway when Neville decapitated her. The destruction of the Hufflepuff cup happens off-page. The diadem seems to have been destroyed by Fiendfyre immediately as well, as when Harry examined it outside the Room of Requirement it was already leaking a blood-like substance, and then it cracked in half. When Voldemort hit Harry with Avada Kedavra in the forest, Harry woke up in limbo with the last fragment of Voldemort's soul - that awful flayed baby-like being - separated from him immediately.   Is there a logical/canon-based explanation for why the fragment of Voldemort's soul residing in Harry wasn't destroyed upon Harry being bitten by the basilisk?  NOTE: I've read the HP Wiki's entry on Horcruxes; however, I find the HP Wiki to be inconsistent in its accuracy, so I'm hesitant to accept the Wiki's explanation on the matter. I'd prefer an explanation constructed from information in the books or a statement by JKR, or the like.
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Could a very accomplished witch/wizard cast any number of spells or charms to give a muggle some amount of magical powers? Could it be even theoretically possible?
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Was Harry Potter an innately powerful/skillful Wizard in any way, based on canon?  It seems that whenever Harry Potter performed some unusually potent bit of magic (potent as far as require raw power AND/OR skill), most of the time we find that it wasn’t innately Harry’s skill, but a combination of:   some extraneous magic forces/rules/powers circumstance great reaction time (which is obviously extraordinary from his Quidditch playing; and is likely a larger factor in his dueling than the strength of his magic) general smartness or (the part that Harry’s detractors, including Voldemort missed) Harry’s strength of character/personality   The only two counter-examples I can think of which show him as having extraordinary or at least obviously above average magical abilities are:   His skill at flying brooms - while a part of it is pure physical skill, at least part is magical. His (corporeal) Patronus charm   As far as examples of his unusual feats being due to reasons listed above:   Obviously, surviving Avada Kedavra as an infant - due to Lily’s sacrifice Parselmouth talent - proxied via Voldemort’s piece of soul. Ability to see the Sorcerer’s Stone in the Mirror of Erised - due to purity of his character, nothing magical. Obvious lack of talent at potion making throughout all of the books (sans cheating in HBP) His win over the Basilisk - due to Hermione’s research, character traits, and as a consequence of the last one, getting Fawkes and Gryffindor’s Sword’s help.  Just to be clear, before someone flames me - what he did was obviously super extraordinary, BUT IMHO he would have achieved the same result if he was turned into a Squib for the duration of Chamber of Secrets fight. TriWizard Tournament entry - wasn’t him, it was Barty Crouch TriWizard Tournament second challenge - a combination of character and outside help (someone told him about Gillyweed) TriWizard Tournament third challenge - Mostly, Barty Crouch’s cheating  Note that I’m omitting the first challenge, since that one was the aforementioned Broom flying skills. His survival in the cemetery after Voldemort’s return - again, a combination of superior strength of character and super powerful wandlore magic that had nothing to do with his skill as a Wizard. The whole “last Horcrux” thing when surviving the second Avada Kedavra from Voldemort His ownership of the Elder Wand in the very last duel with Voldemort.   So, to paraphrase my original question, was there any canon/JKR evidence that Harry was anything but a completely average/mediocre wizard in any way, shape, or form if you take into account only his own magical abilities and skills?
40747
How do muggles with children at Hogwarts (for example, Hermione's parents) communicate with their children while they're at school? The students are able to send owls but does that mean the parents can only send letters when their students send an owl? What if it's an emergency? What if their children never send an owl?
32702
In the Harry Potter universe, young wizards and witches are sometimes born to Muggle parents. In this case, someone from the wizarding world visits them to offer the child their place at Hogwarts.   Anyway, attendance at Hogwarts isn't mandatory because parents can home school their children, but is this true for all children, or only those whose parents can teach them magic?  Would a Muggle-born wizard or witch be left to their own devices, not taught magic or integrated in the wizarding community, basically be left to live as a Muggle?   The only example I know of is Harry (the Dursleys didn't want him to go, but they were intimidated into letting him) but then again he is Harry Potter and there is no other way (even for Dumbledore in-universe) than to make an exception for him.   Do we know what the general rule would be for muggle born wizards and witches, or do we have any clues?
10716
Hermione says in Goblet of Fire:     ‘All those substitutes for magic Muggles use – electricity, and computers and radar, and all those things – they all go haywire around Hogwarts, there’s too much magic in the air.'   Goblet of Fire - pages 475-476 - Bloomsbury - chapter 28, The Madness of Mr Crouch   and in Chamber of Secrets Colin Creevey says this:     ‘[A]nd a boy in my dormitory said if I develop the film in the right potion, the pictures’ll move.’ Colin drew a great shuddering breath of excitement and said, ‘It’s brilliant here, isn’t it?'   Chamber of Secrets - page 75 - Bloomsbury - chapter 6, Gilderoy Lockhart   How is it that Colin Creevey's Muggle camera works properly at Hogwarts and on the Hogwarts grounds? Further, how is it that a magical potion could create moving pictures from Muggle film, which only takes one-framed (for lack of a better description) shots at a time?   I'm assuming Colin's camera is not digital, as this is 1991 (), plus Colin, obviously, references film.
109138
Voldemort was said to be very interested in the four founders of Hogwarts. He created a Horcrux from the Ravenclaw diadem, the Hufflepuff cup, and the Slytherin locket. Did he try to find a Gryffindor relic to complete the set, or did he not bother?   I can't see him giving up on such a task, but maybe there was insufficient time.  Gryffindor's sword was hiding 'inside' the Sorting Hat, but a famous family usually has some other heirlooms too.  If there are no canon answers I'd be interested in your own speculation!
66257
In , a dry cell battery, a wound copper wire and a few magnets (see image below) are being used to create what can be described as "train". It looks fascinating but how does this experiment work?  Update 8th August 2016: This problem has been completely worked out in a paper that was published in the January 2016 issue of American Journal of Physics.     Link: Am. J. Phys. 84, 21 (2016);
14057
‘But you’re Muggles!’ said Mr Weasley delightedly. ‘We must have a drink! What’s that you’ve got there? Oh, you’re changing Muggle money. Molly, look!’ He pointed excitedly at the ten-pound notes in Mr Granger’s hand.   Chamber of Secrets - page 47 - UK Hardcover - chapter 4, Flourish and Blotts   So Gringotts exchanges Muggle money for Wizarding money. What do the Goblins do with the Muggle money after the exchange has been made? Is it possible they keep a stash of Muggle money on hand for reverse exchange purposes, or do they surreptitiously feed the money back into the Muggle economy?  What do Goblins do with Muggle money?
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Something always bothered me with Fudge's accusations:     “Disciplinary hearing of the twelfth of August,” said Fudge in a   ringing voice, and Percy began taking notes at once, “into offences   committed under the Decree for the Reasonable Restriction of Underage   Sorcery and the International Statute of Secrecy by Harry James   Potter, resident at number four, Privet Drive, Little Whinging,   Surrey." - OotP Ch. 8 "The Hearing"   Harry cast the Patronus Charm, so he violated the Decree for Reasonable Restriction of Underage Sorcery alright - extinuating circumstances aside - but how did he breach the Statute of Secrecy?  The only witnesses were Dudley and Mrs. Figg, both of whom already knew that Harry is a wizard. Earlier, even Hermione gets it wrong (don't tell her!):     They haven’t even reported that you broke the International Statute of   Secrecy. We thought they would,... - OotP Ch. 4 "#12"   Yes, Harry does use magic in front of a Muggle, Dudley, but even Dudley is not so thick that the fact that Harry's a wizard would come as a revelation to him. Harry cannot breach the Statute of Secrecy to someone already in the know.  Shouldn't Dumbledore point out that glaring error in the indictment sooner rather than later? Or at least mention it, at all?  Is there maybe a source that mentions the Statute of Secrecy containing a clause, that even the mere possibility of magic being witnessed by an uninitiated muggle is sufficient for its breach?? Cause if so, wouldn't even adult wizards have a really tough time doing anything, ever.  Possibly related: