In Westeros it is popular belief that after taking a liking to Lyanna Stark, Prince Rhaegar kidnapped and raped her. However, the belief amongst fans seem to be that:     Lyanna also fell in love with Rhaegar and ran away with him by choice.   I understand that this theory cannot have just been drawn out of the blue but as a non book reader I have seen next to no evidence for this in the show.  So what evidence is there behind this theory?
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What is the story behind Rhaegar and Lyanna?  I remember reading in one of the books that Rhaegar won the tourney at Harrenhal and named Lyanna Stark the Queen of Love and Beauty. And there's also a mention elsewhere where Robert Baratheon says "if Rhaegar hadn't laid eyes on Lyanna, she would have been alive".  Was Rhaegar responsible for Lyanna's death/suffering directly or indirectly?
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Why did Gregor The Mountain Clegane      kill Qyburn and disobey the queen?   Ok, he wants to fight his brother, but that is not a reason for such an action. He is easily stronger than both of his allies, so he could have just ignored them.  Also, I am not quite sure, why he wants that much to fight his brother really.
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I've read all of the books, but most of them years ago. But I can't remember who it was who actually sent the assassin.  Is it made clear, for example an actual confession?
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In season 7 Cersei attacks      House Tyrell and gets all their gold,   in order to pay the debts to the Iron Bank and then ask their help to hire some mercenaries. But before the gold is back in King's Landing      they're attacked by the Dothraki and a dragon, and (apparently) lose the gold.   It made me think that the support from the Iron Bank was lost too. But, in the last episode, it appears they still have the support of the Bank to hire the mercenaries.  So the question:       Did she recover the gold after the defeat or does the Iron Bank help her without having recovered the gold?
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In the scene in  S01E06 where Khal Drogo pours molten gold over Viserys's head and he dies, Daenerys says that a real (dragon) Targaryen could never have been killed by that.  While we know that dragon blooded Targaryens are immune to fire, how does that translate to being immune to a pot full of molten gold? The Molten metal might have anyways killed any person on whom it was poured over.
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In the first episode of the first season, , three rangers come across a wildling camp killed by a White Walker. The walker then kills 2 of the rangers, but allows Gared to live.                                  In episode 10 of the second season, ,  sees an army of wights led by a White Walker. The walker spares (ignores) Samwell Tarly but attacks the camp at the Fist of First Men. (Also noteworthy is that some wights also pass Sam just before the White Walker on his horse does, and either don't see him or ignore him.)                                  The walkers clearly spared these two people because they could have overpowered and killed either.  From a tactical point of view, the walkers gain nothing by sparing anyone. They are better off killing the person and thereby recruiting the person into their undead army. And the downside is that the survivor can warn others who would then flee the walkers. The result is that the walkers have fewer people to recruit because many humans fled.  Is there an explanation for why the White Walkers sometimes spare somebody?  I prefer an answer from the books, but I will take one from the TV shows.
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In "The Dragon and the Wolf" (Game of Thrones, S07E07), Littlefinger was in a trial, accused by Sansa and Bran of many crimes that he has committed against the Stark family, and eventually sentenced to death. But they didn't show any evidence or proof of Sansa's accusations. He could have easily denied every accusation and, at least, it would put doubts in the other Lords' minds.   How could the Starks convince the other Lords that Littlefinger was guilty?
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Is there any evidence that Severus Snape from J.K. Rowling's Harry Potter was ever loved romantically by a woman? If so, please provide evidence that he was loved - canon evidence only, please.
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Spoilers for Season 7 and Season 6 beyond this point. Please do not scroll if you haven't watched them yet. As the whole question is spoilersome, I won't be using spoiler tags.  Daenerys was predisposed to accept Ironborn independence in S06E09:  Daenerys: You've brought us 100 ships from the Iron Fleet with men to sail them. In return, I expect you want me to support your claim to the throne of the Iron Islands? [...] Theon: He [Euron] murdered our father and would have murdered us. He'll murder you as soon as you have what he wants. The Seven Kingdoms. All of them. Dany: And you don't want the Seven Kingdoms? Yara: Your ancestors defeated ours and took the Iron Islands. We ask you to give them back. Dany: And that's all? Yara: We'd like you to help us murder an uncle or two who don't think a woman's fit to rule. Dany: Reasonable. Tyrion: What if everyone starts demanding their independence? Dany: She's not demanding, she's asking. The others are free to ask as well.  So at that point, she appeared to be willing to accept secession of individual Kingdoms from Iron Throne. To be fair she did ask the Greyjoys this:  You will support my claim as queen of the Seven Kingdoms and respect the integrity of the Seven Kingdoms. No more reaving, roving, raiding, or raping.  Which is kind of vague and open to interpretations (Something which good diplomats always keep an eye out for while conducting negotiations). If some clause or condition is open to interpretations, that often leads to break down in negotiations e.g. IRL in Prelude to Crimean war, a treaty proposed by Great Powers to reduce threat of war between Ottoman Empire and Russian Empire was rejected by Ottomans as some clauses were vague and open to varying interpretations. So If Yara is supposed to accept her as Queen of the Seven Kingdoms and respect the integrity of , she can't bloody well secede, can she? And while Daenerys said others were free to ask as well, she never said that she will allow them. In S07E02 We see:  Tyrion: I can't speak to prophecies or visions in the flames, but I like Jon Snow and I trusted him. And I am an excellent judge of character. If he does rule the North, he would make a valuable ally. The Lannisters executed his father and conspired to murder his brother. Jon Snow has even more reason to hate Cersei than you do. Daenerys: Very well. Send a raven north. Tell Jon Snow that his queen invites him to come to Dragonstone and bend the knee.  Here she is not even willing to view him as an ally, she wants him to bend the knee and be her subject, contrary to her earlier position re the Ironborn. In S0703 She said:  Tyrion: Pledge your sword to her cause. Jon: And why would I do that? I mean no offense, Your Grace, but I don't know you. As far as I can tell, your claim to the throne rests entirely on your father's name, and my own father fought to overthrow the Mad King. The lords of the North placed their trust in me to lead them, and I will continue to do so as well as I can. Daenerys: That's fair. It's also fair to point out that I'm the rightful Queen of the Seven Kingdoms. By declaring yourself king of the northernmost kingdom, you are in open rebellion.  Isles and Rivers (Later both were separated into Iron Islands and Riverlands) was one of the 7 Kingdoms Aegon the Conqueror took. So what about the westernmost Kingdom? What gives? Why be prepared to let the Iron-Islands secede but pressure the Northmen to accept her as Queen? If Torrhen Stark swore a vow to be subject to Aegon the Conqueror and his heirs and successors, so did Vickon Greyjoy. Was she just fooling the Greyjoys with vaguely worded promises?
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In the Game of Thrones Season 8 finale Sansa      demands the freedom of the North. North will be an independent kingdom.   Why did other houses remain silent. They could also demand the same for their own kingdom.  I could guess they are not very powerful to demand anything but there was no harm putting that in front of      the newly elected king.
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Ser Ilyn Payne is still alive and Arya stopped mentioning him in her death list; after all he was the one who beheaded Ned Stark in the first place. So why has he fallen off her list?
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Up until near the end of season four we're led to believe Cersei or Jaime had Jon Arryn — previous Hand of the King — murdered to cover up Cersei's offspring being the product of incest, yet in the episode First of His Name      Lysa Arryn admits to poisoning Jon (her then husband) after being prodded to do so by Petyr Baelish, aka Littlefinger.   The prodder always has a reason for doing something even if it's rarely obvious. What purpose was served by killing Jon Arryn?
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Per my understanding, once Arya Stark killed the Waif in  S06E08 ("No One") she came to Jaqen H'ghar and finally admits that,     A girl is Arya Stark of Winterfell. And I'm going home.   So she seems to renounce any ties with the Faceless Men and to have found her real self back again, after a time of confusion about herself and her legacy, to Jaqen's apparent satisfaction.  Then in S06E10 ("The Winds of Winter"), how is she able to still use the faces      when killing Walder Frey?   I thought this magic is only reserved to the Faceless Men who truly became No One. Arya, though, is someone and is done with the Many-Faced God, yet she still can use the faces at her apparent disposal (without even being near the "face storage" in Braavos). Why/how?  This might be based on a lack of understanding from my side about how this "face magic" actually works. Is it just an accquired skill that you can then use however you want (maybe only requiring some "willing" corpse to provide its face)? Or is it tied to other requirements that Arya already fulfills, albeit not belonging to the Many-Faced God anymore? Or does she maybe even still belong to the Faceless Men somehow? Or is she using the faces "illegaly" as she did before?
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In the S08E03 episode of Game of Thrones, we see Daenerys on her dragon standing against the      Night King    and the dragon throws flames at them.  This character survives without harm (even smiling a little). How is that possible?      This should kill even regular people. But he is a White Walker. It should be even deadlier for him.
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I read  recently, and the third theory for Jon's parents suggest that he's the son of Rhaegar Targarean and Lyanna Stark. It has more credence than the other two theories and I am also partial. Assuming it is true, how to explain these two facts?   Jon Snow's hand is badly burned when he fights the wight to save commander Mormont. Dany is near invincible to fire. And she says of Viserys "He was no dragon" when he dies of the burning golden crown. Assuming that fire immunity passes from parents, how to explain the fact that Jon gets burned? (Come to think of it, The burned hand is reminded persistently after that) Jon Snow is a warg. It is never mentioned that Ned Stark is a warg. But seems like all his (real?) children are. Is it a coincidence that Jon is a warg? Can this ability pass from mother's side to a child?
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Why isn't Tyrion mentioned in the in-universe book "A Song of Ice and Fire"?  He certainly deserved to be. He mentions that he didn't think he'd be spoken of kindly. Why did the maester dislike him?
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Joffrey came across as a bit of a little **** in Seasons 1 and 2, but in Season 3 (especially the end of The Climb) we see that he is utterly, utterly insane.  Could the source of this madness be that he is actually be born of incest between Jaime and Cersei? How could anyone know?