Given the choice in sentences:        I appreciate the help from both yourself and Bob.    I appreciate the help from both you and Bob.      Which is correct?   I'm stuck because I can't seem to understand reflective pronouns. Can "yourself" only be used when the subject is also "you"?
6495
I'm confused by why people use the following:     It's up to yourself.   Rather than:     It's up to you.   Another example of this would be:     Please feel free to contact ourselves if you have any problems.   Rather than:     Please feel free to contact us if you have any problems.   Are both of these correct?  Is there any reason for using the former?
3200
Given the following sentences:   They helped us frame some experimental evaluations. They helped us to frame some experimental evaluations. They helped us in framing some experimental evaluations. They helped us on framing some experimental evaluations.   Are all them grammatically correct or not? Are there any semantical nuances introduced by each alternative (and why), or do they mean exactly the same? Are there any other alternatives besides these 4 to convey the same meaning? Finally, which alternative is the best one, or does it depend on the context or writing style?
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Possible Duplicate:     Which one is correct? I thought the latter would be correct but apparently the former is always used; why? Edit: Another (confusing) example:
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What is the correct form in the following sentences, "both" and "both of them"?      a) "Both of them are unique."      b) "Both are unique."   If "both" by itself already contains "both of them", so I can conclude that the first option is not correct. Isn't it?
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I am getting confused with usage of 's' with verb- consider following 2 sentences-        I am the one who wants to stay with you.   I am the one who want to stay with you.      According to me, first one is the correct usage, because, "the one who" is third person, and hence, the verb will get an 's'. Would like to know what is the rule to be followed in such cases.
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How do we use myself as the only subject of a sentence?   For example I once heard some people saying Myself am to be blamed. Is this grammatically correct? How is it different from I am to be blamed?
104432
I have discovered that when you dont do something yourself but you make someone else to do it, you can say either:  I had my hair cut. OR  I got my hair cut.  I wonder  whether those two have exactly same meaning and usage. Is one form more common than other? More formal? More suitable in some situations?
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Which one of these adjectives is correct? I can see that both of them are being used, I'm just not sure which one is grammatically correct. Are there any general rules to follow as to the use of one against the use of the other?
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I searched the Internet to find which of the following is correct:        Who are we?   Who we are?      And I found that both are used. What is the correct sentence?
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When the phrase is used as an object, why so many native speakers are saying "you and I" instead of "you and me"? I'm not a native speaker but I thought "you and me" is correct. Not sure if this falls into the same category, but "Just between you and me" sounds more natural than "Just between you and I".
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From some comments in the answers for  (now deleted, 10k only), there's confusion around the usage of I vs. me:  While the sentence, "the other attendees are myself and Steve," is agreed to be incorrect, there's confusion about whether the correct form is "the other attendees are me and Steve" or "the other attendees are Steve and I."  (I've always used the heuristic of removing the other people from the sentence, so I always thought "the other attendee is me" would be correct, instead of "the other attendee is I." Is this true, or am I using a flawed heuristic?)
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A.1 The lions reacted to my singing. A.2 The lions reacted to me singing. B.1 My singing alarmed the lions. B.2 Me singing alarmed the lions.  As far as I know, both A.1 and A.2 are grammatical: &quot;me&quot; and &quot;my&quot; are interchangeable, although there is a little difference in meaning. Can we say the same refering to B.1 and B.2? Why does B.2 seem ungrammatical? If it is, what grammatical rule, if any, impedes using &quot;me&quot; in B.2?
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Somebody once observed two things:   people often omit the relative pronoun "who" or "whom" to avoid having to worry about which is grammatically correct however, in all cases where it can be omitted, it is "whom".   But look at this sentence:     I have a friend I hope will come.   Would you consider this to be grammatical, and therefore a counterexample to the latter point?
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I want to talk to someone about the house that my wife and I own.  Saying, for example, "My wife's and my house is awesome," sounds a bit funny to me.  What's the best way to express this?  Clarification  I'm asking specifically about the grammar of multiple nouns in possessive form.  I'm particularly curious if it's possible to do this with a first-person pronoun (me).  I am capable of rephrasing this in other ways - my question is not how to express the idea, but about this particular grammatical construction, if it is even legal.
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This always nags me... I would prefer a logical as well as a grammatical explanation of it.      We enjoyed each other's company.     We enjoyed each others' company.    Which one is correct? Why is the other not?
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Why is a reflexive pronoun, i.e. herself, grammatically required in the following sentence?        I gave Susie a picture of herself.      Compare with:        I gave Susie a picture of her.      This sentence doesn't seem to be able to mean I gave Susie a picture of Susie. It means I gave her a picture of someone else.   I've looked at the following page, but this type of usage doesn't seem to be covered there:              The answers there suggest that we use reflexive pronouns when the subject and object of the verb are the same entity. Herself isn't an object in the example above, and Susie is not a subject either. The syntax in this example seems to be entirely different.  Also, why is the following sentence not grammatical?        I went there by me.      ... as opposed to:        I went there by myself.       This last example, of course, is perfectly fine. So the question here is why does this so-called 'idiomatic usage' contain a reflexive instead of a normal pronoun.  Lastly, why is a reflexive required  in this imperative?        Do it yourself.      Compare with:        Do it you.      Note that yourself isn't an object in that first sentence. (It would be if the sentence was Watch yourself, for example. The object in the example, however, is it.)  What then are the grammatical rules that stipulate the use of reflexive pronouns in these examples?  Edit note   I've changed the order of the examples here to take the focus off the probable emphatic usage in the imperative (although I'm still interested in the grammar here). I've also added a third example, which highlights more clearly the two issues I am most interested in hearing about:   Examples where we need a reflexive pronoun, but the pronoun isn't the object of a verb. Examples, where the antecedent, the original person or thing that the reflexive is duplicating,  is not the subject of a verb.    Any answers with relevant observations and or research would be very gratefully received, whether they address the whole question, or just parts of it.   Observations about the imperative example  Although I'm most concerned with the photograph example, I hereby offer some observations about the imperative one. Some of the interesting comments below suggest that yourself here is an emphatic version of you. As RegEdit's answer points out, the example with yourself seems to be contrastive. The sentence with you, on the other hand, does not give the same reading. I wonder why that is?   I note in passing that yourself seems to be an adjunct ('adverbial') here. This makes it different from another emphatic use of pronouns, which is when a pronoun appears as the subject of an imperative:    You do it!    I originally gave the imperative example for two reasons. Firstly, the reflexive pronoun here is obviously not the object of the verb. Secondly, however, I gave it because there is no antecedent word in this sentence which could be the subject of the verb, or, which represents the same person as yourself. I am curious as to whether the rules requiring reflexive pronouns in emphatic usages, are basically the same ones that require us to use them the rest of the time. In other words, I return to my original question: Why is  a reflexive pronoun required in this case?
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Should the following say whoever or whomever. And why?      Each of us is free to pretend to be whoever/whomever we wish to be.   This sentence needs an object, right?