I want to refer to parties that are hosted for players.   Which of the following phrases is grammatically correct?    "Player Parties" "Players Parties" "Players' Parties" "Player's Parties"   A sentence where I might use this phrase is as follows:      "We host [...]"    Intended usage:  I want to use the phrase in a promotional clip alongside a party that is taking place. The clip will show the party happening, and the phrase will appear over the video to describe the event taking place in the clip.  The parties are put on for players to provide an opportunity for them to socialize, meet other players and relax.    cites the two main uses of the apostrophe that we are all familiar with (the possessive and to indicate omitted letters).     In the context I have used the phrase, do the parties belong to the players? Which of the four above phrases would best match my intended meaning?   This is most certainly not a duplicate of the question related by Edwin, I am referring to the specific case I have outlined above, which is dependent on the correct meaning to be ascribed to this phrase, as per my intended usage.
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I've read a great article about the . But there are still some points that are unclear.  Why do we say...   school project but not school's project? car service but not car's service or even cars' service (plural form)? apostrophe usage but not apostrophe's usage or apostrophes' usage?
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On Server Fault, we were discussing  in chat. There are non-native speakers in the chat and somehow we got on the topic of grammar and proper use of commas.   The sentence of interest:     I have just got a new Ubuntu LAMP VPS server, which I am trying to configure.   Some people thought that the comma was superfluous. Others did not.   When is it appropriate for a comma to preceed the word which, and is the example sentence above correct?    Also, before you vote to close this question as a dupe of , please consider the differences between the two questions and ignore the similarity of the titles. The OP's example sentence was restructured in that question instead of addressing the proper use of commas.
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I just stumbled upon a :     My wife and I's seafood collaboration dinner. How does it look?   Sure enough, the top comment immediately points out that it should be "my wife's and my". However, a cross-post to the Grammar subreddit produced :     It's fine as it is written. "my wife and I" is a noun phrase, functioning as a subjective pronoun in the singular and made possessive with the apostrophe. It is exactly the same as "our".      It seems weird because you would never use "I's" on its own but it is not on its own here - it is part of a noun phrase.   That's a rather intriguing argument. Does it hold any water?
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Consider the brief passage:     "I love your work, but calling you 'the artist' {1} just doesn't seem to be   cutting it anymore. What shall I call you?"      "OK. Call me George." {2}   So my instincts tell me to put {1} in single quotes as opposed to no punctuation (or perhaps even italics) but to do the opposite for {2}. Is this right? Why?  Let me expand this one further iteration:     "Wow, that's a great name, especially with this crowd. Maybe for your next book    you should call yourself Ringo."{3}
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A basic example:     -Hey, will you be at the party this Friday?   -I'll   A guy I know does that all the time and I can't convince him that this isn't correct... or is it?  For me it just sounds stupid and is hard to pronounce only one word like that
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When there are several cottages each with several tariffs (depending on the season), should the plural be "cottage tariffs" or "cottages tariffs"?  For context, this is to be a section title on a website renting out the cottages.  An explanation of the grammatical rules would be helpful.
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Repeating the indefinite article. Is it a matter of style? If so, which quote is more natural [or maybe sounds better]?     My name is Amy Purdy, I am a survivor, snowboarder, founder of   Adaptive Action Sports, globetrotter and daydreamer.   vs.     My name is Amy Purdy, I am a survivor, a snowboarder, a founder of   Adaptive Action Sports, a globetrotter and a daydreamer.   Source: Amy Purdy Note: the first comma is from the source. It should be replaced by a period.
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Example sentence:     I love when your dog just lets you sit there to pet them. You don’t necessarily know if they are enjoying it, but they love you enough to just sit there with you for a bit.   Is this correct? We assume the words "you" and "your" refer to the speaker of the sentence, and not to the listener, as second-person usually does. But it also refers to dog owners in general. I have always been curious about this.
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Possible Duplicate:          If referring to a Users Group (meaning a group made up of multiple individual users who have some control of the group itself), would you use:    A: User’s  B: Users’ C: Users   I have read the post on the  but in this case, plural is appropriate since the group does not belong to one individual.  Wikipedia suggests Users’ (or Users) and in my domain, a leading stats software company has a , though they then use user’s group as part of the description.  What do you think —  A, B, or C?
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Which is correct?     Everyone were convinced that he would go to the game.   Everyone was convinced that he would go to the game.   I think it's "was", because "everyone" is singular, but I just wanted to check.
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I am writing an ad and would like to write: "Our team of economists are at your service and available by phone or email.  They will be happy to respond...".  I know that grammatically speaking, 'team' is the subject of the sentence and, being singular, would dictate that 'it' is "at your service".  BUT, it just feels better reading this and it evokes a picture of a bunch of economists doing what they do rather than a single unit".  Is what I'm doing OK?  Should I be arrested by the grammar police?
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When we refer to a house that belongs to a family, we say "family's house". Pluralizing family gives us "families". Referring to the houses of several families, we say "families' houses". Forming the plural possessive in such a case is rather simple.  I encountered a more complex use of this recently - referring to a single house owned by a single family in a set of houses owned by a set of families.  We can say "the families' houses" to refer to all of the houses owned by all of the families.  We can say "one of the families' houses" to refer to one of the houses owned by one or more of the families. In this context, "one of" applies to "the families' houses".  If we were instead to apply "one of" to "the families", and want to refer to the one house owned by "one of the families", how would this be written?  My first though was "one of the families's house", taking "one of the families" as a single noun and appending 's to it. This looks (and sounds) a bit strange, though. "One of the families' house" and "one of the family's house"/"one of the family's houses" seem wrong to me, and I can't really determine the correct way to say/write this.  Is there a definitively correct way that this should be written?  EDIT: To clarify, although I think I made it clear, in this context, there are several families, and each owns one house. The goal of the sentence is to refer to one of those houses without stating which specific house. Example: "The players and their families want to celebrate their team's victory; this will likely entail a party at one of the families's house".
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Consider the following sentence:     We assume that the individual(s) possesses some general knowledge of the rules of football.   Is "possesses" correct there? Should it be "possess"? Is the rule more complex than always using one or the other?
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I've seen a lot of times the pronoun them used like an article. For example, in the title of the Delta Rhythm Boys Them bones, or in the first sentence of "Money for nothing":     Now look at them yo-yo's, that's the way you do it.   I know that it's not "proper English" (i.e., not something you'll use in a serious writing), but I'd like to know when it's commonly used, and why. Is there any difference between using it and using the?
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Recently at work I was writing the following, and I have not been able to get a firm answer on which version is the most grammatically correct. The sentence is:     We would like to use one of the cables that _________ between rooms.   Is the correct conjugation run or runs?  I think 'run' is correct, because I think that the verb in the prepositional phrase is referring to 'cables' not 'one.' However, a number of colleagues have said that 'runs' is correct because one is singular.
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Which is the correct way to join the sentences and make a compound predicate sentence?  The boys are playing football. They are enjoying themselves.   The boys are playing football and enjoying themselves.   Or   The boys are playing football and are enjoying themselves.
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I'm under the impression that the correct verb to use is "are," but my colleagues believe it to be "is."  And what about just: "over half our board [are/is] people of color" ?  Another case: "over half the stadium [are/is] people of color"  We're tripping over these examples, any help appreciated!